English 12 ôn thi tốt nghiệp

Nội dung text: English 12 ôn thi tốt nghiệp

1. ÔN THI TNTHPTQG 2021 -NO1 1. CÂU HỎI ĐUÔI (TAG QUESTIONS) Công thức: + S? 2. THÌ: 3. CÂU BỊ ĐỘNG . Thì quá khứ đơn S + Ved/ V2 S + 4. CÂU SO SÁNH Với tính từ ngắn: Adj + er + and + adj + er The summer is coming. It gets (HOT) So sánh lũy tiến Với tính từ dài: more/less and more/less + adj She is ( attractive) (càng càng) . The .+S + V, The ( difficult) . t So sánh the . + S + V the exercise is, the ( đồng tiến interesting) (càng thì it is. càng) 5.PHÂN TỪ HIỆN TẠI VÀ PHÂN TỪ HOÀN THÀNH * Lưu ý: Khi hai mệnh đề đồng chủ ngữ, ta có thể bỏ chủ ngữ của mệnh đề đầu và đổi động từ chính về dạng Ving hoặc Having + Vp2 (với mệnh đề mang nghĩa chủ động). - Đưa động từ chính của mệnh đề đầu về dạng Ving khi hai hành động xảy ra nối tiếp nhau. Ví dụ☹ Feel) tired, she went to bed. - Đưa động từ chính của mệnh đề đầu về dạng Having + Vp2 khi muốn nhấn mạnh một hành động xảy ra xong trước rồi mới tới hành động khác. Ví dụ: ( finish) my work, I went out with my friends. 6. CÁCH PHÁT ÂM -ED: ĐỀ SỐ 1 Question 1: A. planned B. planted C. played D. seemed Question 2: A. reliable B. liquid C. revival D. final Question 3: A. provide B. cancel C. enter D. listen Question 4: A. volunteer B. concentrate C. company D. difficult Question 5: Your mother is cooking in the kitchen, ___? A. won't she B. didn’t she C. doesn't she D. isn't she Question 6: The names of the winners of the competition ___ last month. A. will be published B. were published C. have published D. had been published Question 7: ___ your education is, the greater your opportunities are. A. Better B. The best C. The better D. The best Question 8: My mother gave me a (n) ___ bike on my 17th birthday. A. red expensive Japanese B. Japanese red expensive C. expensive red Japanese D. expensive Japanese red Question 9: I ___ on the computer when the lights went out. A. was working B. is working C. worked D. works 1
2. Question 10: Many shops are doing badly ___ the economic situation. A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite of Question 11: ___ a hotel, we looked for some place to have dinner. A. Having found B. Finding C. To find D. Having been found Question 12: The sea turtle is an ___ species which needs protecting. A. danger B. dangerously C. endangered D. danger Question 13: Remember to ___ goodbye to the interviewer before you leave. A. tell B. speak C. say D. talk Question 14: Akina and Eudora are talking about transportation. - Akina: “Cars have become an indispensable part of our lives”. - Eudora “ ___, but I think we should limit car use to clear air pollution” A. You shouldn’t say that again B. That’s right C. I couldn’t agree with you less D. I’m afraid you are wrong. Question 15: Fiona and her mother are checking their washing machine. - Fiona “What’s wrong with the washing machine? - Her mother “___” A. That is not right. B. They are not watching the right TV channel. C. It might be the water supply. D. Make yourself at home. Question 16: We last saw Grandma in 1994. A. The last time we saw Grandma was since 1994. B. We haven’t seen Grandma since 1994. C. It is in 1994 since I last saw Grandma. D. It is in 1994 that I last saw Grandma. Question 17: “Don’t forget to get up early for the meeting tomorrow, Maria”, said Antonio. A. Antonio ordered Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. B. Antonio asked Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. C. Antonio reminded Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. D. Antonio persuaded Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. Question 18: She started learning English 10 years ago. A. It's 10 years since she last started learning English. B. She has started learning English for 10 years. C. She has been learning English for 10 years. D. The last time she learned English was 10 years ago. Question 19: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?” he said. A. He invited me to go to the cinema with him that night. B. He offered me to go to the cinema with him that night. C. He insisted me on going to the cinema with him that night. D. He asked me to go to the cinema with him that night. Question 20: It’s necessary for you to drink enough water every day. A. You should drink enough water every day. B. You may drink enough water every day. C. You needn’t drink enough water every day. D. You mustn’t drink enough water every day. Today, many governments are promoting organic or natural farming methods (21) ___ avoid the use of pesticides and other artificial products. The organic approach means farming with natural, rather than man-made. Techniques such as crop rotation improve soil quality and help organic farmers compensate for the absence of man-made chemicals. (Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge) Question 21: A. that B. how C. who D. why 2
3. Question 29: A. most B. other C. one D. each Question 30: A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Because Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. LIFELONG LEARNING Evidence of the benefits of learning during the latter (26) ___ of life is overwhelming, from research by the Alzheimer's Society showing the delayed onset of the disease, to reduced dependency on welfare support. Melissa March is executive director of Learning for the Fourth Age, a charity dedicated to bringing trained volunteers into care settings (27) ___ they work with residents. “Our volunteers help people with everything from recovering piano-playing after strokes to wanting to tackle Welsh for the first time,” she explains.” In addition, there is (28) ___ of interest in IT and the connections that email can bring. Our work helps break down older people's fears about young people and opens our volunteers' eyes to the lives of older people with very different experiences from their own.” Such improvements bring genuine happiness, as 78-year-old Londoner Maria Tolly found. In 1989, health problems spelled an end to her career as a professional guitarist, until specialist music technology courses at Morley College and the City Lit restored her (29) ___ to making music. “I was concerned that I might be sidelined,” she recalls, “but actually studying at both institutions has proved that age is immaterial - I feel so connected to life (30) ___ a combination of forgetting myself and realizing how much I still have to learn.” Soon she had music commissions ranging from after-school dance groups to composing a song for the 100th anniversary of her local park. “I am now becoming interested in music videos and I am looking for collaborators.” (Source: Question 26: A. spells B. spans C. stages D. periods Question 27: A. what B. which C. where D. when Question 28: A. most B. lots C. a great many D. Instead Question 29: A. ambition B. commitment C. sacrifice D. inspiration Question 30: A. in spite of B. instead of C. due to D. thanks to Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. A few months ago, a group of scientists warned about the rise of “extinction denial,” an effort much like climate denial to mischaracterize the extinction crisis and suggest that human activity isn’t really having a damaging effect on ecosystems and the whole planet. That damaging effect is, in reality, impossible to deny. This past year, scientists and conservation organizations declared that a long list of species may have gone extinct, including dozens of frogs, orchids and fish. Most of these species haven’t been seen in decades, despite frequent and regular expeditions to find out if they still exist. The causes of these extinctions range from diseases to invasive species to habitat loss, but most boil down to human behavior. One of the first papers of 2020 to report any extinction announced the probable loss of 17 percent of Bangladesh's 187 known orchid species. Some of these still exist in other countries, but even regional extinctions (or extirpations, as they're called) tell us that we’ve taken a toll on our ecological habitats. A 3
4. similar paper published just days later suggested that nine more orchid species from Madagascar may have also gone extinct. One of the few extinctions of 2020 received much media attention, and it's easy to see why. Handfish are an unusual group of species whose front fins look somewhat like human appendages, which they use to walk around the ocean floor. The smooth species, which hasn’t been seen since 1802, lived off the coast of Tasmania and was probably common when it was first collected by naturalists. Bottom fishing, pollution, habitat destruction, bycatch and other threats are all listed as among the probable reasons for its extinction. Even though the local fishery collapsed more than 50 years ago, the remaining handfish species are still critically endangered, so this extinction should serve as an important wake-up call to save them. (Adapted from https//www.scientificamerican.com/) Question 31. Which of the following could be the main idea of the passage? A. Human activities are not the primary cause of species extinction. B. Myriad flora and fauna species may have become extinction recently. C. The negative effects of extinction crisis are increasing. D. Plants are more vulnerable than animals. Question 32. The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. expeditions B. decades C. species D. scientists Question 33. Which of the following is TRUE? A. It’s likely to find the extinct orchid species beyond the borders of Bangladesh. B. Deforestation may cause some diseases to kill the invasive species. C. The price for our modern society is the increasing loss in ecological habitats. D. Bottom fishing and accidental entrapment only affect big marine species. Question 34. According to the last paragraph, handfish ___. A. are raised for recreation. B. resemble human's ancestor. C. are threatened by naturalists D. live on the seabed. Question 35. The word “collapsed” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___. A. closed down B. gave up C. put off D. took over Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. When I was a teenager playing Ubisoft's Assassin's Creed series, I definitely wasn't looking to learn things. But with 11 main AC games all set during different times and places in history - like ancient Egypt, Greece, and America during the Revolutionary War - I was bound to learn something, even if just by accident. And I definitely did. One day, my history teacher passed out blank maps of the Caribbean. It was a quiz I had forgotten about. We had to label countries and major cities. Luckily, I'd been playing a lot of Assassin's Creed: Black Flag, set in the Caribbean during the golden age of piracy in the early 18th century. So I was able to draw on my life as a pirate to fill in the map, and I got an A. When I was seven, I learned to multiply quickly through a purely educational game called Treasure Mountain!, which had me solving math problems to progress up a mountain and collect treasure in a never-ending loop. And then, of course, there was Assassin's Creed. Ubisoft leaned into AC's educational potential, with very cool results. They did a lot of research to recreate Ancient Egypt in AC: Origins and Ancient Greece in AC: Odyssey, and they released an educational discovery tour for each game that lets you look around the environment with no violence, enemies, or time constraints. You can learn about the Olympic Games, and how Sparta trained its soldiers in ancient Greece, with real historical figures acting as your tour guides. Or jump over to ancient Egypt to check out mummies and climb on the pyramids. Obviously, Assassin's Creed can't teach you everything you need to know about the ancient world — but the games do make that world come alive for people who are reluctant to learn, like I was. If you're looking for some other options, Minecraft is incredibly popular with kids of any age. Minecraft: Education Edition is free for everybody with a student email until at least June 30, and 4
5. features over 500 pre-made lesson plans for things like coding, history, English, and much more. For example, there is a lesson plan on how to write clear instructions for in-game actions, and another that lets kids learn about slopes by building a roller coaster. (Source: Question 36: Which is the most suitable title for the passage? A. Relaxation choices after studying. B. Propaganda for online gaming. C. New educational platforms. D. Learning from video games. Question 37: The word “bound” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___. A. fated B. certain C. forced D. required Question 38: The word “never-ending” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. endless B. relentless C. limitless D. hopeless Question 39: According to paragraph 4, which is NOT an experience offered in Assassin’s Creed: Odyssey A. Learning about the grand pyramids and the making of mummies. B. Historical personages introducing tours around the ancient Greek. C. Exploring the ancient Greece without being hassled by enemies. D. Watching how the ancient Spartan military training was like. Question 40: According to the passage, what is the authors trying to convince the readers of? A. The gaming industry is one of the most culturally rich industries. B. Gaming teaches more about historical events than textbooks do. C. Video games can get children interested in learning something. D. The gaming worlds are well researched, thus historically correct. Question 41: Through the passage, the author wants to encourage people ___. A. to invest in online games as a potential learning tool in classrooms. B. to use games as a way to solidify their previously learnt knowledge. C. to take advantage of games, be it educational or not, to learn things. D. to draw a clear line between the virtual world and the real world. Question 42: The word “another” in paragraph 6 refers to ___. A. instruction B. lesson plan C. in-game action D. student email Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: Electrical goods were almost double the price they were a few years ago. A B C D Question 44: Everyone has his own ideas about the best way to bring up children. A B C D Question 45: During this campaign, we aim to improve opportunities for the less A B C advantageous in society. D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: We last saw Grandma in 1994. A. The last time we saw Grandma was since 1994. B. We haven’t seen Grandma since 1994. C. It is in 1994 since I last saw Grandma. D. It is in 1994 that I last saw Grandma. Question 47: “Don’t forget to get up early for the meeting tomorrow, Maria”, said Antonio. 5
6. A. Antonio ordered Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. B. Antonio asked Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. C. Antonio reminded Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. D. Antonio persuaded Maria to get up early for the meeting the following day. Question 48: She is not allowed to meet her children until the operation has finished. A. She may not meet her children until the operation has finished. B. She shouldn’t meet her children until the operation has finished. C. She needn’t meet her children until the operation has finished. D. She mustn’t meet her children until the operation has finished. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He dropped out of school when he was 16. He regrets it now. A. If he hadn’t dropped out of school when he was 16, he wouldn’t have regreted now. B. He wishes he hadn't dropped out of school when he was 16. C. If only he didn’t drop out of school when he was 16 so that he doesn't feel regretful now. D. As long as he dropped out of school when he was 16, he regrets it now. Question 50: My girlfriend was born in a rich family. She never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need. A. However my girlfriend’s family is rich, she never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need. B. Were my girlfriend’s family rich, she would never waste money on clothes that she doesn't need. C. As long as my girlfriend’s family rich, she never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need. D. Rich though my girlfriend’s family is, she never wastes money on clothes that she doesn't need. The end 6
7. ĐỀ SỐ 2 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. knows B. lives C. stays D. meets Question 2: A. reliable B. liquid C. revival D. final Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. attend B. option C. percent D. become Question 4: A. beautiful B. important C. delicious D. exciting Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: That is your umbrella, ___? A. isn't it B. isn't that C. does it D. doesn’t it Question 6: ___ photograph of the place, I had no desire to go there. A. Seeing B. Having seen C. Being seen D. To see Question 7: When I was in Vietnam, I lived in a (n) ___ house. A. modern big brick B. big modern brick C. brick modern big D. big brick modern Question 8: When she came in and turned on the TV, her favourite programme ___. A. just began B. was just beginning C. had just begun D. would be beginning Question 9: ___ the teacher explained the lesson several times, some of the students didn’t understand it. A. Because B. Because of C. Despite D. Though Question 10: My father won’t allow me to go to the theater ___. A. when I finished doing my household chores B. after I had finished doing my household chores C. once I will finish doing my household chores D. until I has finished doing my household chores Question 11: I think she's a teacher, but I couldn't say ___ certain. A. at B. with C. to D. for Question 12: I ___ when the ceremony will take place yet. A. have not been informed B. am not informed C. was not informed D. have not informed Question 13: Music and television are forms of ___. A. entertain B. entertained C. entertaining D. entertainment Question 14: My father still hasn't really the death of my mother. A. looked after B. taken after C. recovered from D. gone off Question 15: In general, the more exercise you take, the greater the health benefit; but beyond a certain level you get ___ returns. A. diminishing B. lessening C. decreasing D. reducing Question 16: I do not think there is a real ___ between men and women at home as well as in society. A. balance B. justice C. fairness D. equality Question 17: The sign should be put in the most ___ place so that everybody can see it. A. conspicuous B. obvious C. common D. spacious Question 18: I ___ my chance to get that job because I arrived late for the interview. A. threw B. blew C. flew D. drew Question 19: The faster you drive, ___ you are to have an accident. A. more likely B. the more likely C. the liker D. the most likely 7
8. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: Sports and festivals form an integral part of every human society. A. delighted B. exciting C. essential D. informative Question 21: The accomplishments he has had contributes to the development of local sports. A. achievements B. structures C. calculations D. documents Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The International Organizations are going to be in a temporary way in the country. A. forever B. permanent C. complicated D. contemporary Question 23: I broke my neck trying to arrive at the railway station on time. A. gave up B. pressed on C. went on D. kept on Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Jane is talking to Liz about the gift. - Jane: “Thanks for the nice gift you bought for us!” - Liz:” ___.’’ A. Not at all. Don’t mention it. B. Welcome! It’s very nice of you C. All right. Do you know how much it costs? D. Actually speaking. I myself don’t like it. Question 25: Mary is talking to Peter about the bus. - Mary: “Oh my God, I’ve missed the bus!” - Peter:” ___. Another will come here in ten minutes.” A. I hope so B. Never mind. C. Don’t worry D. Thank you. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Today, many governments are promoting organic or natural farming methods (26) ___ avoid the use of pesticides and other artificial products. The aim is to show that they (27) ___ about the environment and about people’s health. But is this the right approach? Europe is now the biggest (28) ___ for organic food in the world, expanding by 25 percent a year over the past 10 years. Eating organic is (29) ___ way of defining oneself as natural, good, caring, different from the junk-food-scoffing masses. As a journalist puts it: “It feels closer to the source, the beginning, the start of things.” The organic approach means farming with natural, rather than man-made. Techniques such as crop rotation improve soil quality and help organic farmers compensate for the absence of man-made chemicals. (30) ___ , for its ineffective use of land and labour, there are severe limits to how much food can be produced. (Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge) Question 26: A. that B. how C. who D. why Question 27: A. bring B. account C. take D. care Question 28: A. agency B. market C. enterprise D. supermarket Question 29: A. most B. other C. one D. each Question 30: A. Moreover B. However C. Although D. Because Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. At the end of 2019, a new type of coronavirus started spreading in China. This type of coronavirus is often called 2019-nCoV, novel coronavirus, or COVID-19. It is believed that the virus was transmitted from animals to humans. Some of the first cases were diagnosed in people who had visited a market selling live seafood and animals. Unfortunately, when viruses are transmitted from animals to people, it can take scientists a lot of time before they can develop a vaccine or medicines to cure it. 8
9. Some of the symptoms of the coronavirus are fever, cough, runny nose, sore throat, headache, and trouble breathing. These symptoms are very much like those people have with a cold or the flu. The virus appears to spread mainly from person to person. The transmission occurs when someone comes into contact with an infected person. For example, a cough, sneeze or handshake could cause transmission. The spread may also be caused by coming into contact with something an infected person has touched and then touching your mouth, nose or eyes. There is no specific vaccine or medication to cure the disease, but generally, symptoms will go away on their own. However, experts recommend seeking medical care early if symptoms feel worse than a standard cold. Doctors can relieve symptoms by prescribing pain or fever medication. As far as antibiotics are concerned, they are useless to treat coronavirus. (Adapted from MyEnglishpage.com) Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage? A. The symptoms of coronavirus B. The origin of coronavirus C. Coronavirus: Do you know about it? D. How to treat coronavirus? Question 32: The word “Unfortunately” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___? A. Unluckily B. Unpleasantly C. Uncomfortably D. Unacceptably Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 2 as a symptom of the coronavirus? A. fever B. cough C. trouble breathing D. allergic Question 34: According to paragraph 2, the coronavirus can be transmitted from person to person when ___? A. An infected person shakes hands with someone. B. An infected person coughs or sneezes without covering. C. Someone come into contact with something an infected person touched. D. All are correct. Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 4 refers to ___? A. Doctors B. Antibiotics C. Symptoms D. Experts Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Although it's impossible to ignore their popularity, it seems to me that many reality shows send an unfortunate message encouraging a cult of instant celebrity. Many are built around blatant self- promotion and are based on humiliating others for the entertainment of viewers. These programmes suggest that anyone can become famous simply by “being themselves” on TV, without working hard or displaying any talent. Children who watch these shows may come to believe that they don't need to study conscientiously at school, or train hard for a job. As one commentator points out, “We tell kids that what matters is being a celebrity and we wonder why some behave as they do. It seems to me that this addiction to celebrity culture is creating a dumbed-down generation.” In pretending to imitate real life, reality shows promote the belief that we should aspire to be the reality stars we watch on televisions. One of the reasons so many people enjoy reality shows is that they feature real people operating without scripts. The fact that characters have been selected to encourage disagreements or tension and then cynically manipulated does not take away from the reality of the programmers; in fact it adds to it. The unusual settings of shows like Big Brother do not reduce the educational value of observing how the contestants cope with their situation. In fact, without such shows, most people would have little concept of how a group of strangers would be able to survive, co-operate and develop in such environments. As Time Magazine describes it, “They provoke and offend, but at least they are trying to do something besides helping you get to sleep.” This insight therefore into the human condition is invaluable, and it is little surprise that so many viewers are eager to watch these programmes. Far from discouraging hard work and education, reality TV programmes help to create a society in which we have shared experiences and a strong sense of community. Despite the fact that they do not reflect reality, they provide an important social glue. In the past, there were only a few television channels, and everybody watched the same programmes. This sense of a shared experience helped to bind people together, giving them common things to talk about at work the next day: so-called “water 9
10. cooler moments'. Reality programmes play that role in contemporary society with viewership being almost a cultural imperative, an experience shared simultaneously with friends and family. The criticism that reality TV shows may corrupt viewers is not sustainable. Just as it is possible empathize with real- life criminals without going on to commit crimes ourselves, there is no reason why viewers should be persuaded to emulate the morality of reality TV programmes. (Adapted from Life by National Geographic) Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage? A. How are reality TV programmes produced? B. The arguments between commentators about reality TV programmes. C. The aspects of reality TV programmes. D. The effects of reality TV programmes on young people. Question 37: The word “their” in paragraph 1 refers to ___? A. Reality shows B. Reality stars C. Viewers D. Characters Question 38: Why do so many people enjoy reality shows? A. Because the real people appear in the shows. B. Because there are no unusual settings in the shows. C. Because people have to be in real situation. D. Because there is no script for real people to perform. Question 39: The phrase “cope with” is closest in meaning to ___? A. fit B. manage C. stop D. make Question 40: According to paragraph 3, what reality TV programmes bring people nowadays more than in the past? A. That everybody watches the same programmes. B. That everybody experiences the morality of TV programmes. C. That everybody has a sense of shared experiences. D. That everybody talks to each other about work after watching TV programmes. Question 41: The word “sustainable” in paragraph 3 most probably means ___? A. continuous B. unsuitable C. wasteful D. tiring Question 42: Which of the following is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Reality TV programmes send no message of morality to viewers. B. Reality TV programmes have no values to viewers. C. Reality TV programmes create a community in which people tend to be closer to each other. D. Kids seem not to be interested in the celebrity appearing in the TV programmes. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: News about COVID-19 had been updated every minute recently. A B C D Question 44: Customs stopped us and checked their bags for alcohol and cigarettes. A B C D Question 45: Some Greeks felt that the universe was static and unchanged: others A B C believed that change was constant. D Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: She started learning English 10 years ago. A. It's 10 years since she last started learning English. B. She has started learning English for 10 years. 10
11. C. She has been learning English for 10 years. D. The last time she learned English was 10 years ago. Question 47: “Would you like to go to the cinema with me tonight?” he said. A. He invited me to go to the cinema with him that night. B. He offered me to go to the cinema with him that night. C. He insisted me on going to the cinema with him that night. D. He asked me to go to the cinema with him that night. Question 48: It’s necessary for you to drink enough water every day. A. You should drink enough water every day. B. You may drink enough water every day. C. You needn’t drink enough water every day. D. You mustn’t drink enough water every day. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I left home. Then I realized how much my family meant to me. A. Not until I had left home did I realize how much my family meant to me. B. When having left home did I realized how much my family meant to me. C. After having left home did I realized how much my family meant to me. D. Only when I realized how much my family meant to me did I leave home. Question 50: He didn't take his doctor's advice. His health gets worse. A. If he took his doctor’s advice, his health wouldn't get worse. B. He wishes he had taken his doctor’s advice and his health didn’t get worse. C. If only he had taken his doctor's advice, his health wouldn’t have got worse. D. Suppose that he didn’t take his doctor's advice, his health gets better. The end 11
12. ĐỀ SỐ 2 Question 1: A. behaved B. acquired C. devoted D. damaged Question 2: A. rich B. nice C. high D. fine Question 3: A. admit B. support C. enhance D. suffer Question 4: A. memory B. pollution C. holiday D. interview Question 5: She’s kind to animals, ___? A. won’t she B. isn’t she C. doesn’t she D. didn’t she Question 6: Over 100 guests ___ to attend John’s birthday at home. A. invited B. were inviting C. were invited D. invite Question 7: ___ the test is, the better grades we get in our exams. A. Simpler B. The simplest C. The simpler D. Simplest Question 8: She gave her boyfriend a pair of ___ shoes on Valentine's Day to express her burning love for him. A. expensive leather running B. leather expensive running C. expensive running leather D. running expensive leather Question 9: Marry ___ the household chores while her brother was watching his favorite cartoon. A. is doing B. did C. does D. was doing Question 10. More and more nuclear power stations were built ___ widespread opposition from the public. A. because of B. because C. in spite D. despite Question 11: Brown is talking to Linda, his new classmate, in the schoolyard. - Brown: “How do you go to school, Linda?” - Linda: “ ___.” A. About ten kilometers B. Less than 30 minutes C. A bit too long D. On foot Question 12: Billy and Laura are talking about working part-time. - Billy: “I think working part-time is a distraction from our study.” - Laura: “ ___. It gives us the ability to spend money wisely and improve our time management skills” A. It makes sense to me B. It’s right C. I totally agree with you D. I don't quite agree Question 13: The last time I rode a bicycle to school was when I was in 9 grade. A. I haven't ridden a bicycle to school for 9 years. B. I haven't ridden a bicycle to school since I was in 9 grade. C. I didn't ride a bicycle to school when I was in 9 grade. D. I have ridden a bicycle to school for when I was in 9 grade. Question 14: “I'm really sorry I didn't reply to your email, Jack” she said. A. She blamed Jack for not replying to her email.B. She apologized Jack for not replying to his email. C. She refused to reply to Jack’s email.D. She promised to reply to Jack's email. Question 15: It is absolutely imperative that we finish the project by next week. A. We must finish the project by next week.B. We may finish the project by next week. C. We needn’t finish the project by next week.D. We don’t have to finish the project by next week. 12
13. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: Her boss is on business. She really needs his support to solve the problem now. A. As long as her boss isn’t on business, he will support her to solve the problem. B. She wishes her boss wouldn’t be on business and could support her to solve the problem now. C. If her boss isn’t on business, he will support her to solve the problem now. D. If only her boss hadn’t been on business and could have supported her to solve the problem. Question 33: He finally failed the entrance examination to university. He realized the importance of making an attempt to study. A. Not until he realized the importance of making an attempt to study did he fail the entrance examination to university. B. Only after he had failed the entrance examination to university did he realize the importance of making an attempt to study. C. Hardly had he realized the importance of making an attempt to study when he failed the entrance examination to university. D. Had he not realized the importance of making an attempt to study, he couldn’t have failed the entrance examination to university. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. URBANIZATION Urbanization is on the (34) ___ around the world. By 2050, some 70 percent of humanity will live in the cities and that is good news for the environment. Many of the environmental advantages are derived from living spaces being condensed. For example, electricity use per person in cities is lower than electricity use per person in the suburbs and rural areas. Condensed living space (35) ___ creates reduction in energy use also allows for more of the natural environment to be preserved. In a suburban or rural environment, private properties are spread out, because land values are relatively low. (36) ___ , more of the natural environment is destroyed. In cities, property values are higher and space is used more efficiently. That means that more people live in the same square mile of land than in rural areas. (37) ___ environmental advantage of cities compared to rural areas is a decrease in carbon emissions per person. In a rural or suburban area, people normally use their own vehicles to drive to work or anywhere else. Due to congestion, the use of personal cars in the city is much less attractive. More people use public (38) ___ instead and that means that less carbon dioxide gets released into the atmosphere. (Source: Question 34: A. rise B. increase C. raise D. soar Question 35: A. who B. when C. where D. that Question 36: A. In contrast B. For example C. Therefore D. In addition Question 37: A. Another B. Other C. Many D. Most Question 38: A. conveyance B. transportation C. transmission D. transport Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. The adorable clone, named Elizabeth Ann, is a species of black-footed ferret, one of the most endangered mammals in North America, according to the World Wildlife Fund for Nature. Born on Dec. 10, 2020, Elizabeth Ann was created using cells from “Willa,” a wild black-footed ferret who died and 13
14. had her cells cryopreserved in 1988, according to a statement from the U.S. Fish and Wildlife Service (USFWS), which was involved in the cloning. The feat marks the first time an endangered species in the U.S. has been cloned, the statement said. “It was a commitment to seeing this species survive that has led to the successful birth of Elizabeth Ann,” Ryan Phelan, executive director of Revive & Restore, a conservation organization that was involved with the cloning, said in the statement. “To see her now thriving ushers in a new era for her species and for conservation-dependent species everywhere.” Black-footed ferrets were once thought to be extinct, but scientists found a small population in 1981, which allowed conservationists to start captive breeding programs for the species. About 250 to 350 of the ferrets live in captivity, and 300 more live in reintroduction sites in the wild, according to Revive & Restore. But the limited genetic diversity of the species has challenged its recovery, making the creatures prone to health disorders and certain infections, the Times reported. Since Willa was not one of the “seven founders” of the population, her genes — which are now possessed by Elizabeth Ann — could bring much-needed variation to the population's genetics. Several other endangered animals have been cloned in other parts of the world, including gaur, or wild cattle, in 2001, bucardo, or wild goats, in 2009, and wild coyotes in 2012, according to Scientific American. (Source: Question 39: Which could be the best title of the passage? A. First cloned endangered species in the US. B. New technology to save the biodiversity. C. The use of biotechnology in conservation. D. The first step towards human cloning. Question 40: The word “ushers in” in paragraph 1 mostly means ___. A. escorts B. guides C. signals D. causes Question 41: The word “her” in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. Willa B. Elizabeth Ann C. black-footed ferret D. clone Question 42: According to the passage, Elizabeth Ann ___. A. will serve as a key to the mystery of black-footed ferret’s genetics. B. will be the only clone due to the controversial nature of the practice. C. will be recorded in the history of biology as a technological miracle. D. will help bring genetic diversity to the black-footed ferret population Question 43: Which of the following statements is NOT true, according to the passage? A. Researchers have successfully cloned a highly endangered ferret species. B. Before cloning, black-footed ferrets were a story of conservation failure. C. Elizabeth Ann was cloned using cells frozen more than three decades ago. D. Genetic similarity makes today’s ferrets potentially susceptible to diseases. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Once your child is born, they start learning motor skills, language skills, cognitive skills, and emotional skills. Regarding motor skills, it is largely the family's responsibility for teaching these skills. Even if your child is in daycare, the work that parents put in at home to teach these skills is much more effective than in the few hours your child is under someone else’s care. Your child will learn how to sit up, walk, run, climb, hold a spoon and so on. These seem quite natural to us as adults, but they are skills that have to be fine-tuned at a very young age, and they also reinforce your child’s independence which is essential for their development. Language skills are another essential component of the role of family in child development. If you do not speak to your child and teach them your language, they will never learn. One infamous example of this occurring is with Genie, a child who was locked in a dark room with extremely little human 14
15. contact until she was rescued at age 13. She was never able to develop language fluency because it was never taught to her. So, teaching your children language skills from a young age is also essential to child development. Another skill that is very important for child development is emotion. Emotional skills are important throughout your child’s entire life as they teach them when to have sympathy and compassion for others as well as teach them how to deal with the highs and lows that come with life. If your child does not have proper emotional skills, they will not be able to deal with bad outcomes. If they lack emotional skills, it could lead to destructive choices when they are older. To help develop your child’s emotional skills, teaching them to smile and wave when they are babies is a good place to start. When they get a bit older, teaching them to share is very important. In a family, because there are multiple people, the family can be very helpful in developing a child’s skills with the multiple perspectives. To bring this more to foundational building blocks, while your child is very young, something very helpful for family members to do is to teach children basic emotions. When a child is feeling a certain way, naming emotions and describing them are important ways for your child to understand how they are feeling. Once this foundation is set, children can learn how to respond to their feelings and move forward. (Adapted from Question 44. Which of the following could be the best title of the passage? A. Skills and the Relation with Child Development B. The Most Essential Skills in Child Development C. Teaching Skills: When is the Best Time? D. Family’s Roles in Child's Skill Development Question 45. The word “reinforce” in paragraph 2 could be best replaced by A. strengthen B. harbor C. subside D. damage Question 46. The story of Genie mentioned in paragraph 3 proves that ___. A. communication with others may help children develop their language skills. B. public did not know anything about the evil that happened to the poor girl. C. a teenager is unable to learn language skills as naturally as a child. D. children may not grow up without having human contact daily. Question 47. The phrase “highs and lows” in paragraph 4 most probably means ___ A. joys and sorrows B. happiness and sadness C. love and hatred D. successes and failures Question 48. According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. Parents have the greater influence on their child’s motor skills than others do. B. Children have to make great efforts to learn the skills considered spontaneous to adults. C. Emotion is the most indispensable skill for a child to become mature. D. Children should be taught how to express their emotions when they are babies. Question 49. The word “they” in the last paragraph refers to ___. A. emotions B. your children C. ways D. family members Question 50. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Children may become depraved if their parents cannot be a good model. B. Children probably develop their skills completely in an extended family. C. The situation of Genie is not popular in the modern society. D. A child will be more independent if he knows how to respect others’ emotions. The end 15
16. ĐỀ SỐ 4 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. types B. works C. laughs D. sends Question 2: A. breath B. threaten C. great D. health Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. purpose B. repeat C. prepare D. police Question 4: A. ability B. scientific C. experience D. material Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: You have a book about dinosaurs, ___? A. do you B. don't you C. have you D. haven’t you Question 6: ___ that he'd seen the film before, he turned off the television and went to bed. A. Realizing B. Having realized C. To realize D. Being realized Question 7: My father used to live in ___. A. a small lovely old village B. an old small lovely village C. a lovely small old village D. a lovely old village small Question 8: While her brother was studying in London, Sarah ___ to him twice a week. A. write B. had written C. has written D. wrote Question 9: The strict punishments have already been passed ___ more and more people are breaking the traffic rules, which causes serious problems. A. although B. because C. in spite of D. because of Question 10: ___, he takes the children for a walk to a nearby playground. A. As soon as he finishes dinner B. After he had finished dinner C. When he finished dinner D. Until he has finished dinner Question 11: You have to be tough to be successful ___ politics. A. in B. by C. on D. of Question 12: There is no doubt that a language which ___ throughout the world will do much to bring countries closer to each other. A. commonly using B. is commonly used C. was commonly used D. commonly used Question 13: She suffered from severe body ___ after a car accident. A. injure B. injuries C. injured D. injurious Question 14: Many companies and private schools were ___ due to the seriously financial problems. A. wiped out B. taken off C. put away D. gone over Question 15: I think we may ___ forward to a better vision of the current situation. A. take B. have C. look D. give Question 16: Scientific ___ help us discover more parts of the world where there are special animals and plants. A. surveys B. research C. experiments D. expeditions Question 17: Thousands of people in Vietnam are under the threat of desert ___. A. increase B. expansion C. rise D. development Question 18: The man didn’t ___ an eyelid when he received the result. A. bat B. wink C. use D. close Question 19: ___ the time passes, ___ I feel! The deadline of my thesis is coming, but I have just finished half of it. A. The faster / the nervous B. The fastest / the more nervously 16
17. C. The faster / the more nervously D. The faster / the more nervous Mark the letter A, B,C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: Scientists hope this vaccine will be able to eliminate the virus. Some tests on the animals showed that most of the virus disappeared after they were injected with it. A. release B. exchange C. create D. remove Question 21: Recently the prices of pork, vegetables and some other food have fluctuated. Pork is $2 cheaper than it was last week and can be a bit more expensive next week. A. spun out of control B. changed frequently C. run fast D. gone slowly Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: Before the exam, I had been told the instructions were easy, but in fact, I found them extremely complicated. A. manageable B. difficult C. demanding D. challenging Question 23: You shouldn't make a mountain out of a molehill. You just gave a wrong answer but it doesn't mean you’re not going to qualify for the second round. A. make an unimportant matter seem important B. magnify the extent of the problem C. underestimate the seriousness of the problem D. neglect the importance of the situation Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Rose is having lunch in a restaurant. - Rose: “Can you bring me some water?” - Waiter:” ___.” A. No, thanks. B. Of course, you can. C. I’m afraid not. D. Certainly. Wait a minute. Question 25: Mary and Mike are talking about French. - Mary: “Can you speak French?” - Mike: “ ___ “ A. No, I’m not. B. Only a little. C. Yes, very much. D. No, thanks. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Technology will allow homes in the future to be “smart”. Appliances will communicate with each other and with you. Your stove, for instance, will tell you (26) ___ your food is cooked and ready to eat. The technology is possible because tiny information-storing devices called RFID1 chips. People already use them to keep (27) ___ of pets and farm animals. Future RFID chips will store information about (28) ___ the items in your cabinets. For example, they will record the date that you bought each item. Other devices will “read” this information using radio waves. When you need more food, your cabinets will tell you to buy it. In a smart home, you won’t have to repaint the walls. The walls will (29) ___ be digital screens, like computer or TV screens. The technology is called OLED and it's here already. A computer network will link these walls with everything else in your house. Called “ambient intelligence,” this computer “brain” will control your entire house. It will (30) ___ adapt to your preferences. Your house will learn about your likes and dislikes. It will then use that knowledge to control the environment. (Adapted from Complete Advanced) Question 26: A. that B. how C. who D. when Question 27: A. track B. control C. pace D. contact Question 28: A. all B. every C. any D. each 17
18. Question 29: A. definitely B. really C. actually D. completely Question 30: A. therefore B. also C. still D. instead Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. We are in the middle of a worldwide change in cultures - a transformation of entertainment, business and politics. Popular culture has crossed borders in ways we have never seen before. According to social scientists, our world is shrinking. In Japan, people have become fanatics of flamenco and there are hundreds of dance schools around the country. In the last few years, dozens of top Spanish flamenco artists have given performances there. It’s a huge and growing market. Meanwhile, in Denmark people have discovered a new interest in Italian food, and pasta imports have grown fivefold over the last decade. And the classic American blonde Barbie doll now comes in about 30 national varieties, including new additions this year of Austrian and Moroccan. How do people feel about globalisation? It depends to a large extent on where they live and how much money they’ve got. However, globalisation, as one report has stated, ‘is a reality, not a choice’. Humans have always developed commercial and cultural connections, but these days computers, the Internet, mobile phones, cable TV and cheaper air transport have accelerated and complicated these connections. Nevertheless, the basic dynamic is the same: Goods move. People move. Ideas move. And cultures change. The difference now is the speed and extent of these changes. Television had 50 million users after thirteen years; the Internet had the same number after only five years. But now that more than one fifth of all the people in the world speak at least some English, critics of globalisation say that we are one big ‘McWorld’. (Adapted from Life by National Geographic) Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage? A. Changes in culture B. A world together C. What makes the world change D. Worldwide movement Question 32: The word “shrinking” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___? A. becoming big B. getting new C. becoming small D. changing. Question 33: Which is NOT mentioned in paragraph 1 as an example of that the world is shrinking. A. English language in Asia B. Italian food in Denmark C. Flamenco dance in Japan D. American Barbie doll in Morocco Question 34: According to paragraph 2, globalization is fast because of ___? A. Computers and internet B. Mobile phones C. Cable TVs D. Mass media and cheap air transport Question 35: The phrase “the same number” in paragraph 2 refers to ___? A. 30 years B. 50 millions C. 5 years D. one fifth of people in the world Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 43. Study of the origins and distribution of human populations used to be based on archaeological and fossil evidence. A number of techniques developed since the 1950s, however, have placed the study of these subjects on a sounder and more objective footing. The best information on early population movements is now being obtained from the “archaeology of the living body”, the clues to be found in genetic material. Recent work on the problem of when people first entered the Americas is an example of the value of these new techniques. North-east Asia and Siberia have long been accepted as the launching ground for the first human colonisers of the New World. But was there one major wave of migration across the Bering Strait into the Americas, or several? And when did this event, or events, take place? In recent years, new clues have come from research into genetics, including the distribution of genetic markers in modern Native Americans. An important project, led by the biological anthropologist Robert Williams, focused on the variants (called GM allotypes) of one particular protein - immunoglobin G - found in the fluid portion of human blood. All proteins “drift”, or produce variants, over the generations, and members of an interbreeding 18
19. human population will share a set of such variants. Thus, by comparing the GM allotypes of two different populations (e.g. two Indian tribes), one can establish their genetic “distance”, which itself can be calibrated to give an indication of the length of time since these populations last interbred. Williams and his colleagues sampled the blood of over 5,000 American Indians in western North America during a twenty-year period. They found that their GM allotypes could be divided into two groups, one of which also corresponded to the genetic typing of Central and South American Indians. Other tests showed that the Eskimo and Aleut formed a third group. From this evidence it was deduced that there had been three major waves of migration across the Bering Strait. The first, Paleo Indian, was more than 15,000 years ago was ancestral to all Central and South American Indians. The second wave, about 14,000-12,000 years ago, brought Na-Dene hunters, ancestors of the Navajo and Apache who migrated south from Canada about 600 to 7000 years ago. The third wave, perhaps 10,000 or 9,000 years ago, saw the migration from North-east Asia of groups ancestral to the modern Eskimo and Aleut. (Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge) Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage? A. When the migration in America happened. B. The relationship between population movements and genetics. C. Distribution of human population in America. D. The evidences of genetics in America. Question 37: Where did scientists find out the information on early population movements? A. From human distribution B. From archeological documents of living creatures. C. From fossil evidence D. From genetic material of the living body Question 38: According to Robert Williams, Gm allotypes of immunoglobin G in human blood show one person belongs to an interbreeding human population ___? A. Because of a similar set of variants. B. Because the protein, immunoglobin G, produces variants. C. When a population establishes genetic distance. D. When the populations interbred. Question 39: The word “indication” paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___? A. discussion B. statement C. suggestion D. idea Question 40: When did Robert William start to do research on blood samples of American Indians? A. 9,000 years ago B. 600 years ago C. 5,000 years ago D. 20 years ago Question 41: Which of the following is NOT mentioned in paragraph 4? A. Williams had another research in Arizona. B. Williams found out major waves of immigration. C. Williams showed the milestones of each wave. D. Williams studied the ancestors of Eskimo and Aleut. Question 42: The word “their” paragraph 4 refers to ___? A. William and his colleagues B. American Indians C. Blood samples D. Two populations Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: The number of people suffering from the drought had been increasing rapidly. A B C D Question 44: We were all really tired out after our long journey, so we asked the A B C landlord to put him up for the night. D 19
20. Question 45: He was an industrial worker when he worked in the factory. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: The last time I heard from Jane was 3 years ago. A. I didn’t hear anything from Jane 3 years ago. B. It's 3 years since I last heard from Jane. C. I haven’t heard anything from Jane for 3 year. D. I started hearing from Jane was 3 years ago. Question 47: “Remember to wake me up at 6 a.m tomorrow” she said to me. A. She told me to remember to wake her up at 6 a.m tomorrow. B. She reminded me to wake her up at 6 a.m the next day. C. She reminded me to remember to wake her up at 6 a.m the next day. D. She told me to wake her up at 6 a.m the following day. Question 48: It isn’t necessary for you to finish the project today. A. You can't finish the project today. B. You may not finish the project today. C. You had better not finish the project today. D. You don’t need to finish the project today. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: I arrived home. After that I prepared dinner for my family. A. No sooner had I prepared dinner for my family than I arrived home. B. Only after I had arrived home did I prepare dinner for my family. C. Had I arrived home, I would have prepared dinner for my family. D. Not until I arrived home did I prepare dinner for my family. Question 50: I couldn’t understand the exercise. I didn’t go to school yesterday. A. If only I had understood the exercise, I would have gone to school yesterday. B. I wish I had gone to school yesterday so that I could understand the exercise C. Had I gone to school yesterday, I couldn’t have understood the exercise. D. As long as I couldn’t understand the exercise, I would go to school yesterday. The end, 20
21. ĐỀ SỐ 5 Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. called B. phoned C. showed D. finished Question 2: A. campus B. accident C. disapprove D. salmon Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. regret B. damage C. faster D. study Question 4: A. difficult B. geology C. confident D. natural Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: Someone knocked at the door, ___? A. did it B. did they C. didn’t it D. didn’t they Question 6: The house ___ by the fire before the fire brigade arrived. A. destroyed B. had been destroyed C. was destroyed D. have been destroyed Question 7: The class is comprised mainly ___ Italian and French students. A. in B. on C. of D. at Question 8: The higher we climbed, ___ it was to breathe. A. more difficult B. the most difficult C. the more difficult D. most difficult Question 9: Mr Brown found a/an ___ box full of old photos. A. old brown wooden B. brown old wooden C. old wooden brown D. brown wooden old Question 10: I don't know what has happened to him. He ___ badly since he came home. A. behaved B. behaves C. has behaved D. is behaving Question 11: ___ repeated assurance that the product is safe, many people have stopped buying it. A. Despite B. Because C. Although D. Though Question 12: It won't be safe to use these stairs ___. A. before they repair them. B. after they will repair them. C. when they repaired them D. until they have repaired them. Question 13: ___ the report on the students’ result, she shut down the computer and went home. A. To have finished B. To finish C. Being finished D. Having finished Question 14: She sent me a ___ letter thanking me for my invitation. A. impoliteness B. politeness C. politely D. polite Question 15: We arrived a few minutes before the plane ___. A. took on B. took up C. took off D. took out Question 16: When the pregnant woman got on the bus, one of the young man stood up and ___ room for her. A. made B. put C. got D. did Question 17: In many countries now there is still no gender equality and women never have the same ___ as men. A. state B. status C. role D. position Question 18: Our company is bending over ___ to satisfy our customers. A. backwards B. forwards C. downwards D. upwards Question 19: Many patients think optimistically. They are never in the ___ of death. A. dread B. fear C. panic D. terror 21
22. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: With so many writing projects to work on, the editor decided to outsource some of the easier tasks to other freelancers. A. oblige B. assign C. exchange D. resign Question 21: Moving to a new country at a young age gave me a chance to spread my wings. A. become accustomed to doing new things B. become nervous and avoid trying new things C. become independent and try new things D. become incapable of doing new things Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The teacher tried to forbid the students from using their cell phones in their exams, but it turned out that they didn't listen to her. A. restrain B. prohibit C. permit D. imply Question 23: She is wearing a lot of layers today because it’s freezing outside. A. chilly B. flammable C. glacial D. scorching Mark the letter A, B,C or D to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 24: Lam is in the post office. - Post office staff: “How can I help you?” - Lam: “ ___.” A. I’d like two stamps, please. B. No, I don’t want to. C. Yes, I’d love to. D. Ok. You are very kind. Question 25: Peter and Carla are talking to each other. - Peter: “Would you like to go to the cinema this Saturday afternoon?” - Mike: “___” A. No, I wouldn’t. B. Yes, I would C. It’s a pity. I am busy. D. No, I don't like it. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Why is the South Pole colder than the North Pole? Both polar regions of the earth are cold, primarily (26) ___ they receive far less solar radiation than the tropics and mid-latitudes do. At either pole the sun never rises more than 23.5 degrees above the horizon and both locations experience six months of continuous darkness. Moreover, most of the sunlight (27) ___ does shine on the polar regions is reflected by the bright white surface. What makes the South Pole so (28) ___ colder than the North Pole is that it sits on top of a very thick ice sheet, which itself sits on a continent. The (29) ___ of the ice sheet at the South Pole is more than 9,000 feet in elevation - more than a mile and a half above sea level. Antarctica is by far the highest continent on the earth. In (30) ___ , the North Pole rests in the middle of the Arctic Ocean, where the surface of floating ice rides only on foot or so above the surrounding sea. The Arctic Ocean also acts as an effective heat reservoir, warming the cold atmosphere in the winter and drawing heat from the atmosphere in the summer. (Adapted from Essential Reading for IELTS) Question 26: A. but B. despite C. because D. because of Question 27: A. that B. whose C. when D. where Question 28: A. many B. much C. some D. a lot of Question 29: A. face B. top C. surface D. reef Question 30: A. contrast B. conclusion C. addition D. comparison Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. 22
23. It is hard to argue that the actual contribution to development amounts to a great deal directly. Whilst volunteer tourists can get involved in building homes or schools, they have usually paid a significant fee for the opportunity to be involved in this work: money that, if donated to a local community directly, could potentially pay for a greater amount of labor than the individual volunteer could ever hope to provide. This is especially so in the case of gap years, in which the level of technical skill or professional experience required of volunteers is negligible. Hence, it is unsurprising that many academic studies allude to the moral issue of whether gap year volunteering is principally motivated by altruism - a desire to benefit the society visited - or whether young people aim to generate “cultural capital” which benefits them in their careers. However, the projects may play a role in developing people who will, in the course of their careers and lives, act ethically in favor of those less well-off. Volunteering may lead to greater international understanding; enhanced ability to solve conflicts; widespread and democratic participation in global affairs through global civic society organizations; and growth of international social networks among ordinary people. In this scenario, the whole is greater than the sum of its parts, an outcome where benefits accrue to volunteers and host communities, and contribute to the global greater good. However, if volunteering is largely limited to individuals of means from wealthier areas of the world, it may give these privileged volunteers an international perspective, and a career boost, but it will do little for people and communities who currently lack access to international voluntary work. Those who volunteer will continue to reap its benefits, using host organizations and host communities as a rung on the ladder of personal advancement. (Adapted from Compact Advanced) Question 31: Which best serves as the title of the passage? A. Voluntary work B. Volunteer tourism C. Volunteer issues D. Voluntary potential Question 32: What is money paid by tourists probably used to do? A. build homes and schools B. pay for the volunteer C. to pay for the labor D. do the charity Question 33: The word “negligible” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ___? A. important B. significant C. vast D. unimportant Question 34: Which of the following is NOT the benefit volunteer tourism bring about? A. Greater international understanding B. Enhanced ability to solve conflicts C. Reduction violence affairs D. Growth of international social networks among ordinary people Question 35: The phrase “a rung on the ladder” in paragraph 2 refers to ___? A. a stage B. a match C. a play D. an advantage Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. Being bullied in school is not “part of growing up” or just a “rite of passage.” Some children who endure bullying never get over the fear and the humiliation, according to Mr. Barone. By working together, schools and parents can make going to school an experience that students will enjoy, not dread. Students who are the victims of bullies and school officials who hold the power to stop them have very different perceptions of the problem. This difference has hindered effective prevention efforts. Bullying is a situation when a student or group of students is mean to you over a long period of time (weeks or even months). Bullying can either be physical (hitting, kicking, and so on) or it can be verbal (threats, name calling, gossiping, or ignoring). Using this definition, the school staff member were asked to estimate the percentage of the students in their schools who had been victimized by bullying. On average, the staff member believed that 16% of the students had been victims of bullies. The students in the same schools were asked whether they had ever been bothered by a bully or bullies while you were in middle school. And 58.8 % of the students surveyed said that they had. The size of the difference in perceptions between students and school staff members suggests that the staff members do not recognize 23
24. the extent of the bullying that students face. Bullying just does not seem to be “that big a problem” to the staff. The same survey uncovered some interesting facts. Contrary to what many of us believe, bullying in school does not primarily involve boys. Popular portrayals, such as The Lord of the Flies and the Lords of Discipline, which depict only boys as both the bullies and the victims, do not reflect reality. As shown in this study, only 47% of the victims of bullying in middle school are boys. Thus, according to the students’ own perceptions, the majority (53%) of the victims of bullies are girls. Not surprisingly, the bullying that takes place among boys tends to be more physical (punching, kicking, pushing, and so on) than that which takes place among girls (which is usually more verbal in nature). Among the students who said that the bullying they had experienced was mostly physical, 89.3% were boys. Among those students who said that the bullying they experienced was mostly verbal, 67.1% were girls) Among all students surveyed, 10% indicated that they had been physically injured by a bullying in school. Furthermore, the nature of the injuries ranged from minor bumps and bruises to some injuries that required hospitalization. Of those students who said they had been injured by a bully, 76.5% were boys. (Adapted from Reading Academic English) Question 36: Which of the following best serves as the title of the passage? A. A study of gender differences in schools B. A study of bullying in schools C. A study of bullying consequences D. A study of how victims are bullied in school Question 37: The phrase “rite of passage” is closest in meaning to ___? A. Important occasion B. Important part C. Important message D. Important period Question 38: According to paragraph 2, who can prevent the state of bullying in schools? A. Students B. School staffs C. Parents D. School officials Question 39: The word “estimate” paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___? A. count B. number C. calculate D. understand Question 40: The word “that” in paragraph 3 refers to ___? A. the study B. the bullying C. the victim D. the middle school Question 41: Which of the following is NOT true, according to the passage? A. Only boys are bullied in school. B. The number of the girls who are bullied is bigger than that of the boys. C. The boys are often punched, pushed and kicked. D. More girls experienced verbal bullying than boys. Question 42: What can be the writer’s purpose in the passage? A. To warn schools members of serious bullying in schools. B. To show the real state of bullying in schools C. To predict that bullying is more and more developing in schools. D. To advise school members to pay attention to the bullying in schools. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: They already filled over 6 bags with rubbish from the beach up to now. A B C D Question 44: Others say that we must limit population growth because their resources are limited. A B C D Question 45: In the study, temperature was a variableness which needed measuring by a special tool. A B C D 24
25. Mark the letter A, B, Cor D to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: The last time I watched TV was two weeks ago. A. I didn’t watch TV for two weeks. B. I haven’t watched TV for two weeks. C. I hadn’t watched TV for two weeks. D. I have watched TV for two weeks. Question 47: “Did you go to the library yesterday?” she said to me. A. She asked me if you go to the library yesterday. B. She asked me if you went to the library yesterday. C. She asked me if I had been to the library yesterday. D. She asked me if I had been to the library the day before. Question 48: It is important to be hard working in any circumstances. A. You should work hard in any circumstances. B. You may work hard in any circumstances. C. You must work hard in any circumstances. D. You need to work hard in any circumstances. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: A few ill people didn’t isolate on their own. People around them were affected. A. If only a few ill people isolated on their own, people around them would not be affected. B. Suppose that a few ill people were isolated on their own, people around them would be affected. C. If a few ill people had isolated on their own, people around them would not be affected. D. If a few ill people had isolated on their own, people around them wouldn’t have been affected. Question 50: They didn’t stop arguing about the exercise. Then, the teacher explained it. A. Not until did the teacher explain the exercise they stopped arguing about it. B. Only after the teacher explained the exercise, they stopped arguing about it. C. Not until the teacher explained the exercise did they stop arguing about it. D. Only until the teacher explained the exercise, they stopped arguing about it. The end 25