Chuyên đề luyện thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2020

Nội dung text: Chuyên đề luyện thi THPT Quốc gia môn Tiếng Anh - Năm học 2020

1. Question 61: The pronoun “it” in paragraph 2 refers to which of the following A. The Continental Congress B. Trade in goods C. The War D. Paper money Question 62: It is implied in the passage that at the end of the Revolutionary War, a paper dollar was worth A. exactly one dollar B. just over one dollar C. just under one dollar D. almost nothing Question 63: The word “remedy” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to A. resolve B. medicate C. renew D. understand Question 64: How was the monetary system arranged in the Constitution? A. The US officially went on a bimetallic monetary system. B. The dollar was made official currency of the US. C. Only the US Congress could issue money. D. Various state governments, including Massachusetts, could issue money. Question 65: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true about the bimetallic monetary system? A. Either gold or silver could be used as official money. B. It was established in 1792. C. Gold could be exchanged for silver at the rate of sixteen to one. D. The monetary system was based on two matters. Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction. Question 66: I didn’t see Marry since she went to live in the capital. A B C D Question 67: Ice always melts if the air temperature will be warm enough. A B C D Question 68: Even on the most careful prepared trip, problems will sometimes happen. A B C D Question 69: People today use aspirin to relieve pain, alike past genaretions, who used the bark of the A B C White willow tree in powder form. D Question 70: Our supervisor advised to take a course in reseach methods. A B C D Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 71: You’re not to blame for what happened. A. You are not accused of what happened. B. What happened is not your fault. C. You’re responsible for what happened. D. We blame you for what happened. Question 72: Tom acts as if he knew every thing. A. Tom knows every thing so he acts that way. B. The way Tom acts shows that he knows every thing. C. Tom acts like that he knew every thing. D. Tom doesn’t know every thing but he wants to appear he does. Question 73: Jim is my best friend. I borrowed his car yesterday. A. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday, is my best friend. B. Jim, whose car I borrowed yesterday is my best friend. C. Jim, who is my best friend, borrowed my car yesterday. D. Jim, whose car I lent yesterday, is my best friend. Question 74: Tim is likely to fail if he takes the exam without studying. A. Tim will fail if he takes the exam without studying. B. It’s probable that Tim will fail the exam if he doesn’t study. C. It’s certain that Tim will pass the exam if he studies. 351
2. D. It’s certain that Tim will fail because he doesn’t studies. Question75: At this time tomorrow, hopefully, I'll be relaxing at home rather than working this hard. A. Tomorrow, rather than relaxing at home as I'd hoped to do, I'll be working quite hard. B. I hope that, instead of working so hard at this time tomorrow, I'll be at home resting. C. I'm planning to relax at home tomorrow, instead of working so hard. D. Resting at home is something I hope to be doing at this time tomorrow, but I'll probably be working quite hard instead. Question 76: I’ve been here for two hours, and I’m still waiting. A. I’m still waiting here in two hours. B. I was still here waiting two hours. C. I still waited here tow hours ago. D. I’ve been waiting here for two hours. Question77: In spite of doing well in the contest, Jane didn’t win. A. Jane did well in the contest, but she didn’t win so. B. Jane did well in the contest. However, she didn’t win. C. Jane did well in the contest. Therefore, she didn’t win. D. Jane didn’t win because she did well in the contest. Question 78: “Where were you last night, Mr. Jenkins?” he said. A. He asked Mr. Jenkins where was he last night. B. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins was the night before. C. He wanted to know where Mr. Jenkins had been the following night. D. He asked Mr. Jenkins where he had been the previous night Question79: I think you should revise for the exam. A. If I were you, I would revise for the exam. B. If I am you, I will revise for the exam. C. If I would be you, I revised for the exam. D. If I will be you, I revise for the exam. Question 80: No sooner had gold been discovered in California than thousands of people set out for the west coast of North America. A. It was not soon after the time that gold had been uncovered in California that thousands of people departed for North America’s west coast. B. The west coast of North America became the destination of thousands of people the moment that gold was found in California. C. Thousands of people had already begun their journey to the west coast of North America by the time gold was found in California. D. Thousands of people were heading for California on the west coast of North America when the news of the discovery of gold there reached them. KEY TO PRACTICE 23 1. A 11. A 21. D 31. B 41. D 51. C 61. D 71. B 2. D 12. D 22. C 32. C 42. B 52. D 62. D 72. D 3. D 13. C 23. B 33. A 43. D 53. C 63. A 73. A 4. B 14. B 24. B 34. A 44. A 54. B 64. C 74. B 5. B 15. B 25. C 35. D 45. D 55. B 65. C 75. B 6. A 16. B 26. A 36. D 46. D 56. C 66. A 76. D 7. C 17. B 27. C 37. D 47. A 57. B 67. C 77. B 8. D 18. B 28. D 38. A 48. B 58. A 68. C 78. D 9. B 19. C 29. D 39. B 49. B 59. B 69. A 79. A 10. C 20. C 30. D 40. A 50. A 60. B 70. B 80. B 352
3. PRACTICE TEST 24 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that has the underlined part pronounced differently from the others. Question 1: A. flood B. good C. foot D. look Question 2: A. handicapped B. advantaged C. organized D. raised Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions from 6 to 10. Question 3: A. particular B. accidental C. outnumber D. analysis Question 4:. A. librarian B. experiment C. historial D. entertain Question 5: A. intention B. business C. endangered D. extinction Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions from 21 to 50. Question 6: Are there enough apples for us to have one ? A. self B. individually C. every D. each Question 7: If I had another $25,00 a year, I would consider myself A. well-made B. well- deserved C. well-done D. well-off Question 8: This car was the most expensive purchase I have ever . A. done B. taken C. made D. bought Question 9: Of the two boys overthere, Tom is A. the best B. better C. more hard-working D. the more hard-working Question 10: The concert didn’t come our expectations. A. up with B. up against C. round D. up to Question 11: The gymnasium facilities of this public school of the finest private school in the county. A. second after those B. first except for that C. second only to those D. second place from that Question 12: This is Henry, ___ works for your father. A. that B. whom C. A & B are correct D. who Question 13: The baby can’t even walk, run A. little more B. more less C. much less D. much more Question 14: He always did well at school having his early education disrupted by illness. A. even though. B. on account of C. in addition to D. in spite of Question 15: The assistant director recommended that Kenichi to the New York office. A. transferring B. to transfer C. be transferred D. is transferred Question 16: Don’t put Graham in charge of arranging the theatre trip; he is too A. inorganized B. organized C. disorganized D. unorganized Question 17: Out . from its tiny cage. A. does the bird fly B. fly the bird C. did the bird fly D. flew the bird Question 18: As in Greek and Roman mythology, harpies were frightful monsters that were half woman and half bird. A. description B. described C. describing D. to describe Question 19: The quantum theory states ., such as light, is given off and absorbed in tiny definite units called quanta or photons. A. energy that B. that energy C. it is energy D. that it is energy Question 20: Armed terrorists are reported to have . the Embassy. A. taken to B. taken over C. taken into D. taken up Question 21: Corporations have been donating more and more to A. the needy B. the need C. the needy people D. the needed Question 22: No one is indifferent to praise, ? A. is one B. isn’t one C. are they D. is he Question 23: During the Precambrian period, the Earth’s crust formed, and life . in the seas. A. the first to appeared B. first appeared C. the first apprearance D. apprearing first Question24: to occur in the Earth’s crust, push pull and shake waves . simultaneously. 353
4. A. If a break/ would be generated B. If broken/ would generate C. A break was / would have been generated D. Were a break/ would be generated Question 25: of precious gems is determined by their hardness, color and brilliance. A. It is valuable B. It is the value C. The value D. The valuable Question 26: “ There aren’t many people here yet, are there?” “ . ” A. Yes, I think so B. No, but it’s still early C. Yes, not many yet D. No, there are Question 27: “ Want me to turn up the heater?” “ ” A. No, go right ahead B. It’s my pleasure C. Thanks, I’ll be right back D. Please don’t. It’s quite warm here Question 28: “ I wonder if you could help me?” “ ” A. I’ll do my best. What’s the problem? B. Don’t mention it C. No, what is it? D. Really? How nice Question 29: “ Would you like to have noodles, spaghetti or something different?” “ ” A. Anything will do B. Yes, please C. Never mind D. I am afraid not Question 30: “ ” “Yes, there is plenty of room” A. What is the new wardrobe like? B. How much is the new wardrobe? C. It’s a big wardrobe, isn’t it? D. How big is the new wardrobe Blacken the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 31: I prefer to talk to people face to face rather than to talk on the phone A. looking at them B. facing them C. in person D. seeing them Question 32: Many movies receive disparaging reviews from film experts and yet become extremely successful. A. lengthy B. uninteresting C. authoritative D. negative Question 33: She simply took it for granted that the check was good and did not ask him any questions about it. A. looked it over B. accepted it without investigation C. objected to it D. permitted it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 34: He is one of the most discourteous bosses I have ever worked with. A. polite B. rude C. impolite D. unpleasant Cõu 35: Thousands are going starving because of the failure of this year's harvest. A. rich B. poor C. full D. hungry Read the following passage and mark the letter A,B,C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. The number of hungry people in the world is rising geometrically even though food production has (36) ___ considerably. The basic problem, that (37) ___ countries have (38) ___ and developing countries too little food, looks easy to resolve – the developed countries simply need to trade surpluses with countries that need them. But the (39) ___ is not that simple. The developing countries (40) ___ purchasing power and a country’ food imports are directly (41) ___ to its ability to pay. A country’s (42) ___ to pay depends on the number of productive jobs in the country that generate goods and services that can be traded. Developing countries are essentially (43) ___ and present trends show they will remain so. Agriculture accounts for 35 to 40 percent of the gross domestic product and employs between 60 and 80 percent of the work force in developing countries. Because it is so important, these countries must look to their own food production to 44) ___ their poverty. Increased food production would lead to growth of higher personal income which, in turn, would lead to growth of national (45) ___. This wealth can then be used to increase food imports to provide a better diet and thus improve the health of the total community. 354
5. Question 36: A. hopped B. augmented C. enlarged D. increased Question 37: A. rural B. southern C. rich D. industrialized Question 38: A. too much B. abundant C. too many D. much Question 39: A. resolution B. solution C. reply D. solving Question 40: A. want B. lack C. need D. miss Question 41: A. linked B. attached C. chained D. joined Question 42: A. chance B. willingness C. ability D. need Question 43: A. industrial B. fish-producing C. rural D. urban Question 44: A. overcome B. deny C. fix D. solve Question 45: A. riches B. money C. prestige D. wealth Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. Yet these foods can cause persons sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it's hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenathylamine, monosodium glutamate, or sodium nitrate. Common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many Oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B-vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective. Question 46: The topic of this passage is A. reactions to foods B. infants and allergies C. food and nutrition D. a good diet Question 47: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to A. lack of a proper treatment plan B. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems C. the use of prepared formula to feed babies D. the vast number of different foods we eat Question 48: The word "symptoms" is closest in meaning to A. diagnosis B. diet C. prescriptions D. indications Question 49: The phrase "set off" is closest in meaning to A. identified B. relieved C. avoided D. triggered Question 50: What can be inferred about babies from this passage? A. They should have a carefully restricted diet as infants. B. They gain little benefit from being breast fed. C. They can eat almost anything. D. They may become hyperactive if fed solid food too early. Question 51: The word "hyperactive" is closest in meaning to A. unusually low activity B. excited C. overly active D. inquisitive 355
6. Question 52: The author states that the reason that infants need to avoid certain foods related to allergies has to do with the infant's ___ A. lack of teeth B. underdeveloped intestinal tract C. inability to swallow solid foods D. poor metabolism Question 53: The word "these" refers to: A. food colorings B. food additives C. unnutritious foods . D. foods high in sacilates Question 54: Which of the following was a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? A. Avoiding all Oriental foods B. Using Vitamin B in addition to a good diet C. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate D. Eating more ripe bananas Question 55: According to the article the Feingold diet is NOT A. verified by researchers as being consistently effective B. available in book form beneficial for hyperactive children designed to eliminate foods containing certain food additives Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Niagara Falls, one of the most famous North american natural wonders,has long been a popular tourist destination. Tourists today flock to see the two falls that actually constitute Niagara Falls: the 173-foot Horseshoe Fall on the Canadian side of the Niagara River in the Canadian province of Ontario and the 182-foot high American Falls on the U. S. side of the river in the state of New York. Approximately 85 percent of the water that goes over the falls actually goes over Horseshoe Falls, with the rest going over American Falls. Most visitors come between April and October, and it is quite a popular activity to take a steamer out onto the river and right up to the base of the falls for a close-up view. It is also possible to get a spectacular view of the falls from the strategic locations along the Niagara River, such as Prospect Point or Table Rock, or from one of the four observation towers which have heights up to 500 feet. Tourists have been visiting Niagara Falls in large numters since the1800s; annual visitation now averages above l0 million visitors per year. Because of concern that all these tourists would inadvertently destroy the natural beauty of this scenic wonder, the state of New York in 1885 created Niagara Falls Park in order to protect the land surrounding American Falls. A year later Canada created Queen Victoria Park on the Canadian side of the Niagara, around Horseshoe Falls. With the area surrounding the falls under the jurisdiction of govemment agencies, appropriate steps could be taken to preserve the pristine beauty of the area. Question 56. What is the major point that the author is making in this passage? A. Niagara Falls can be viewed from either the American side or the Canadian side. B. A hip to the United States isn't complete without a visit to Niagara Falls. C. Niagara Falls has had an interesting history. D. It has been necessary to protect Niagara Falls from the many tourists who go there. Question 57. The word "flock" in the first paragraph could best be replaced by A. come by plane B. come in large numbers C. come out of boredom D. come without knowing what they will see Question 58. According to the passage, what which of the following best describes Niagara Falls? A. Niagara Falls consists of two rivers, one Canadian and the other American- B. American Falls is considerably higher that Horseshoe Falls. C. The Niagara River has two falls, one in Canada and one in the United States. D. Although the Niagara River flows through the United States and Canada, the falls are only in the United States. Question 59. A "steamer" in the seconl paragraph is probably A. a bus B. a boat C. a walkway D. a park Question 60. The expression "right up" in the second paragraph could best be replaced by 356
7. A. turn to the right B. follow correct procedures C. travel upstream D. all the way up Question 61. The passage implies that tourists prefer to A. visit Niagara Falls during warmer weather B. see the falls from a great distance C. take a ride over the falls D. come to Niagara Falls for a winter vacation Question 62. According to the passage, why was Niagara park created? A. To encourage tourists to visit Niagara Falls B. To show off the natural beauty of Niagara Falls C. To protect the area around Niagara Falls- D. To force Canada to open Queen Victoria Park Question 63. The word' Jurisdiction" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. view B. assistance C. taxation D. control Question 64. The word "pristine" in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to A. pure and nafural B. highly developed C. well-regulated D. overused Question 65. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses? A. additional ways to observe the falls B. steps taken by government agencies to protect the falls C. a detailed description of the division of the falls between the United States and Canada D. further problems that are destroying the area around the falls Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction Question 66:. Almost medical doctors have had some training in psychology and psychiatry A B C D Question 67: Alike many finds in astrology, the discovery of Uranus was by accident. A B C D Question 68:. When radio programs became popular, approximately around 1925, many people A B C stopped attending movies. D Question 69: The residence of Greenville, Texas hold an annual Cotton Jubilee to remember A B the crop that caused their city to prosper. C D Question 70:. Commercial airliners do not fly in the vicinity of volcanic eruptions because even A a small amount of volcanic ash can damage its engines. B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 71: You can rely on Pat to give you any help you may need. A. If you need help of any knid, be sure to let Pat know. B. Let Pat know if you need any help with this. C. Pat is the one to ask if you find you require any assistance. D. Should you require any assistance, you can count on Pat for it. Question 72: Domestic violence is a touchy topic. We are not interested in the topic of domestic violence Domestic violence id not our concern. We should not touch the topic of domestic violence. D. The topic of domestic violence is quite sensitive. Question 73: I couldn’t help admiring the way he managed to finish the programme even after such a bad fall. A. In spite of the fall, he should have finished the programme and we could have admired him for that. 357
8. B. It was really a very bad fall, but somehow he was still able to finish the programme and I had to admire him for that. C. The way he finished the programme was certainly admirable, as the fall had shaken him up badly. D. I really admire the way he got up after the fall and completed the programme. Question 74: I just can’t understand why so few people are interested in this camping holiday. A. I find it surprising that there aren’t fewer people interested in such a camping holiday. B. Hardly anyone wants to go on this camping holiday, which I find strange. C. It’s hardly surprising that so few people are interested in this camping holiday. D. To my surprise almost no one was interested in such a camping holiday. Question 75: Mary felt quite certain that her sister would stand by her, but in the end she didn’t. A. Mary had hoped that her sister would come to her aid, but she never did. B. Mary didn’t expect her own sister to let her down like that. C. Mary was confident that she would have her sister’s support, but as it turned out she let her down. D. It came as a terrible shock to Mary when her own sister turned against her like that. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 76: , United would have lost the match yesterday. A. If it hadn’t been for their goalkeeper B. If their goalkeeper didn’t play so well C. Hadn’t their goalkeeper played so well D. Were their goalkeeper not to play so well Question 77: , but he often gives me a hand with the housework. A. However busy my husband is at work B. No matter how busy is my husband at work C. My husband is very busy at work D. Although my husband is very busy at work Question 78: that I tore up the letter. A. I was so annoying B. I was such an annoyed C. So was I annoyed D. Such was my annoyance Question 79: for running a red light, Jane decided it was not in her best interest to argue since she was not wearing her seat belt. A. The police stopped her B. When stopping by the police C. Having been stopped by the police D. Being stopped by the police Question 80: in the atmosphere is the temperature falling below freezing. A. Frost is produced B. What is frost produced C. What produces frost D. Frost KEY TO PRACTICE TEST 24 1. A 11. C 21. A 31. C 41. A 51. C 61. A 71. D 2. A 12. B 22. C 32. D 42. C 52. B 62. C 72. D 3. B 13. C 23. B 33. B 43. C 53. D 63. D 73. B 4. D 14. D 24. D 34. A 44. A 54. B 64. A 74. B 5. B 15. C 25. C 35. C 45. D 55. A 65. B 75. C 6. D 16. C 26. B 36. D 46. A 56. D 66. A 76. A 7. D 17. D 27. D 37. D 47. B 57. B 67. A 77. C 8. C 18. B 28. A 38. A 48. D 58. C 68. C 78. D 9. D 19. B 29. A 39. B 49. D 59. B 69. A 79. C 10. D 20. B 30. C 40. B 50. A 60. D 70. D 80. C PRACTICE TEST 25 Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in each group Question 1: A. chemists B. laughs C. days D. books Question 2: A. blessed B. demolished C. wretched D. played Choose one word whose stress pattern is different from other words in the group (circle A, B, C or D) Question 3: A. promote B. diverse C. language D. combine Question 4: A. improve B. justice C. adopt D. admit 358
9. Question 5: A. understand B. geography C. engineer D. disappearance Choose from the four options given (circle A, B, C or D) one best answer to complete each sentence. Question 6: Most doctors and nurses have to work on a ___ once or twice a week at the hospital. A. solution B. special dishes C. household chores D. night shift Question 7: This is the first time we ___ this kind of food in this restaurant. A. had eaten B. ate C. eat D. have eaten Question 8: The boy waved his hands to his mother, who was standing at the school gate, to ___ her attention. A. tempt B. attract C. pull D. follow Question 9: You are old enough to take ___ for what you have done. A. responsible B. responsibility C. responsibly D. irresponsible Question 10: Small children are often told that it is rude to point ___ other people. A. to B. for C. on D. at Question 11: She told me she ___ her mother for ages. A. hasn't met B. didn't meet C. hadn't met D. wouldn't meet Question 12: Peter: “You look great in this new dress. ” Barbara: “___. ” A. With pleasure B. Not at all C. I am glad you like it D. Do not say anything about it Question 13: ”___” “No, Thank you, that’ll be all. ” A. What would you like? B. It’s very kind of you to help me. C. Would you like anything else? D. what kind of food do you like? Question 14: Our teacher often said, "Who knows the answer? ___ your hand. " A. Raise B. Lift C. Heighten D. Rise Question 15: Ann ___ and left. A. said goodbye to me B. says goodbye to me C. tell me goodbye D. told me goodbye Question 16: The ___ to success is to be ready from the start. A. key B. demand C. agreement D. response Question 17: My father phoned me to say that he would come ___ home late. A. a B. ỉ C. the D. an Question 18: Our parents ___ hands to give us a nice house and a happy home. A. join B. shake C. share D. give Question 19: Emily said that her teacher ___ to London ___. A. would go / the next day B. will go / tomorrow C. had gone / the next day D. went / tomorrow Question 20: John is ___ only child in his family so his parents love him a lot. A. a B. no article C. an D. the Question 21: In the 19th century, it ___ two or three months to cross North America by covered wagon. A. had taken B. had taken C. took D. was taking Question 22: “Can I try your new camera?” “___”. A. I’m sorry. I’m home late. B. I’m sorry, I can’t. Let’s go now. C. Sure. I’d love to it. D. Sure. But please careful with it. Question 23: The lights ___ out because we ___ the electricity bill. A. have gone / did not pay B. will go / did not paid C. go / would not pay D. went / had not paid Question 24: Jack asked me ___. A. where do you come from? B. where I had come from C. where I came from D. where did I come from? Question 25: The Americans are ___ than the Indians and the Chinese with physical attractiveness when choosing a wife or a husband. A. much more concerned B. more concerning C. much concerned D. concerned Question 26: My mother used to be a woman of great ___, but now she gets old and looks pale. 359
10. A. beautify B. beautiful C. beautifully D. beauty Question 27: John asked me ___ in English. A. what that word means B. what did this word mean C. what does this word mean D. what that word meant Question 28: Sometimes she does not agree ___ her husband about child rearing but they soon find the solutions. A. for B. with C. of D. on Question 29: A woman can never have a happy married life without ___ her husband. A. demanding B. agreeing C. trusting D. determining Question 30: He isn't used to ___ with sticks. A. eating B. eat C. ate D. eats Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 31: Many of us have ambivalent feelings about our politicians, admiring but also distrusting them. A. mixed B. critical C. approving D. indifferent Question 32: She got up late and rushed to the bus stop. A. went leisurely B. came into C. dropped by D. went quickly Question 33: The reason why Aurora is dressed to the nines is because she's got a date tonight. A. dressed too casually for the occasion B. dressed in a size nine C. dressed up and looking great D. dressed in a plain-looking suit Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. Question 34: The story told by the teacher amused children in the class. A. frightened B. saddened C. jolted D. astonished Question 35: Polluted water and increased water temperatures have driven many species to the verge of extinction A. enriched B. contaminated C. purified D. strengthened Choose the sentence which has the closest meaning to the sentence given (circle the letter A, B, C or D) Question 36: We are a very close-knit family. A. Members of our family are never close to each other. B. Members of our family have a very close relationship with each other. C. Members of our family need each other. D. Members of our family need to help each other Question 37: " You broke my computer, Lan" Nam said. A. Lan told Nam he broke his computer. B. Nam accused Lan of breaking his computer. C. Lan told Nam that he had broken her computer. D. Nam said that Lan broke her computer. Question 38: " Don't worry about your problem" she told me. A. She wanted me not to worry about her problem. B. She told me not to worry about your problem. C. She advised me not to worry about my problem D. She advised me not to worry about her problem. Question 39: They haven't signed the contract yet. A. The contract wouldn't be signed. B. The contract hasn't been signed. C. The contract isn't signed. D. The contract wasn't signed. Question 40: They have been working in this factory since 2004. A. They had been working in this factory before 2004. B. They have started working in this factory since 2004. C. They were working in this factory in 2004. D. They started working in this factory in 2004. Question 41: John used to write home once a week when he was abroad. A. John doesn’t now write home once a week any longer. 360
11. B. John enjoyed writing home every week when he was abroad. C. John never forgot to write a weekly letter home when he was abroad. D. When he was abroad he remembered to write home every week. Question 42: His friends never forgave his betrayal. A. His betrayal was never forgiven by his friends. B. His betrayal were never forgiven by his friends. C. His betrayal was never forgave by his friends D. His betrayal never forgave by his friends. Question 43: My father is tired of seeing any violent films. A. My father hasn’t seen a violent film. B. My father has enjoyed all the violent films he has ever seen. C. My father is worried about missing the next violent film. D. My father never wants to see another violent film. Question 44: Mr. Brown bought this car five years ago. A. It is five years ago since Mr. Brown bought this car. B. Mr. Brown started to buy this car five years ago. C. Mr. Brown has had this car for five years. D. It has been five years when Mr. Brown bought this car. Question 45: Eight years ago we started writing to each other. A. We wrote to each other eight years ago. B. We have rarely written to each other for eight years. C. Eight years is a long time for us to write to each other. D. We have been writing to each other for eight years. Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence Question 46: Marriage is a life-long journey together, which is not simply a boat you A B C get on together and getting off when it does not work out. D Question 47: Tom was very tired because he runs for an hour. A B C D Question 48: Would you like a few salt in your vegetables? A B C D Question 49: I finish my book before my next birthday. A B C D Question 50: The car whose quality is very good has been used a long time ago. A B C D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 51 to 60. It is very difficult to succeed in the music business; nine out of ten bands that release a first record fail to produce a second. Surviving in the music industry requires luck and patience, but most of all it requires an intricate knowledge of how a record company functions. The process begins when a representative of a company’s Artist and Repertoire (A &R) department visits bars and night clubs, scouting for young, talented bands. After the representative identifies a promising band, he or she will work to negotiate a contract with that band. The signing of this recording contract is a slow process. A company will spend a long time investigating the band itself as well as current trends in popular music. During this period, it is important that a band reciprocate with an investigation of its own, learning as much as possible about the record company and making personal connections within the different departments that will handle their recordings. Once a band has signed the contract and, has finished recording an album, the Publicity and Promotions department takes over. This department decides whether or not to mass produce and market the band’s album. Most bands fail to make personal contacts in this second department, thus losing their voice in the important final process of producing and marketing their album. This loss of nice often contributes to the band’s failure as a recording group. Question 51: Which word can be best replaced for ‘release’? 361
12. A. distribute B. pay for C. overturn D. itemize Question 52: Which word can be best replaced for ‘takes over’? A. takes charge B. take pleasure C. take advice D. takes blame Question 53: What will a recording company investigate once they have identified a band at a bar or a night club? A. the Publicity Promotions B. the band itself and current trends in popular music C. the singers’ personal relationship D. the signing of this recording contract Question 54: According to the passage, the initial contact between a band and a recording company is made by___ A. the band’s manager. B. a band member. C. an A&R representative. D. the Publicity Promotions department. Question 55: The author mentions that a band’s success is dependent on all of the following factors EXCEPT A. having patience. B. making personal contacts with people in the company. C. understanding how a record company functions. D. playing music that sounds like music of famous bands. Question 56: According to the passage, the Publicity and Promotions department A. has the final decision in producing an album. B. handles the recording arrangements for the band. C. sends representatives to look for new talented bands. D. visits bars and night clubs. Question 57: It can be inferred from the passage that___ A. the music industry is full of opportunities for young band. B. the A& R department has a large staff. C. most bands do not fully understand how record companies operate. D. the cost of recording an album is very expensive. Question 58: The phrase ‘this period’ refers to A. waiting for the signing of a recording contract B. scouting for young, talented bands C. waiting to represent the A & R department D. preparing to have the second album Question 59: Which of the following words is most similar in meaning to ‘handle’? A. touch B. control C. manipulate D. protect Question 60: Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage? A. Nine out of ten bands fail to produce a second record. B. It is important for a band to have an intricate knowledge of how a recording company functions. C. Making personal connections will help the band in the final decisions about the promotion of their album. D. The main factors in a band’s success are luck and patience. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks from 61 to 70. Packet sugar from the supermarket is extracted from (61) ___ sugar cane or sugar beet. These (62) ___ are mixed with hot water, which dissolves their natural sugar. Sugar is also found in fruit some of which, such as dates and grapes, (63) ___ very high amounts of sugar. To be a little more (64) ___, sugar should be called sucrose. Sucrose is made up of two substances, glucose, which (65) ___ for instant energy, and fructose, which lasts longer as a source of energy. The sugar in fruit is mainly fructose. So when we eat fruit, we (66) ___ quite large amounts of natural sugar. Some scientists believe that too much sugar (67) ___ in sweets, cakes, and biscuits. It is said to be generally bad for the health, although nothing (68) ___ so far. However, it (69) ___ that sugar causes tooth decay. As one expert said that “If other foods damaged our body as much as sugar (70) ___ our teeth, they would be banned immediately. ” 362
13. Question 61: A. both B. some C. either D. mainly Question 62: A. productions B. products C. producers D. producing Question 63: A. contain B. are containing C. are contained D. contains Question 64: A. scientists B. scientific C. Science D. non-science Question 65: A. used B. are using C. use D. is used Question 66: A. are also eaten B. have been eaten C. also eat D. will be eaten Question 67: A. is eaten B. eats C. has eaten D. will eat Question 68: A. is proving B. has proved C. has been proved D. were proved Question 69: A. knows B. has known C. is knowing D. is known Question 70: A. damages B. did C. decayed D. effect Read the passage below and choose the best answers that follow. Millions of people are using cell phones today. In many places, it is actually considered unusual not to use one. In many countries, cell phones are very popular with young people. They find that the phones are more than a means of communication - having a mobile phone shows that they are cool and connected. The explosion in mobile phone use around the world has made some health professionals worried. Some doctors are concerned that in the future many people may suffer health problems from the use of mobile phones. In England, there has been a serious debate about this issue. Mobile phone companies are worried about the negative publicity of such ideas. They say that there is no proof that mobile phones are bad for your health. On the other hand, medical studies have shown changes in the brain cells of some people who use mobile phones. Signs of change in the tissues of the brain and head can be detected with modern scanning equipment. In one case, a traveling salesman had to retire at young age because of serious memory loss. He couldn't remember even simple tasks. He would often forget the name of his own son. This man used to talk on his mobile phone for about six hours a day, every day of his working week, for a couple of years. His family doctor blamed his mobile phone use, but his employer's doctor didn't agree. What is it that makes mobile phones potentially harmful? The answer is radiation. High-tech machines can detect very small amounts of radiation from mobile phones. Mobile phone companies agree that there is some radiation, but they say the amount is too small to worry about. As the discussion about their safety continues, it appears that it's best to use mobile phones less often. Use your regular phone if you want to talk for a long time. Use your mobile phone only when you really need it. Mobile phones can be very useful and convenient, especially in emergencies. In the future, mobile phones may have a warning label that says they are bad for your health. So for now, it's wise not to use your mobile phone too often. Question 71: According to the passage, cell phones are especially popular with young people because A. they are indispensable in everyday communications. B. they make them look more stylish. C. they keep the users alert all the time. D. they cannot be replaced by regular phones. Question 72: The word "means" in the passage most closely means A. “meanings” B. “expression” C. “transmission” D. “method” Question 73: Doctors have tentatively concluded that cell phones may A. cause some mental malfunction C. change their users’ temperament. B. change their users’ social behaviours. D. damage their users’ emotions. Question 74: "Negative publicity" in the passage most likely means A. poor ideas about the effects of cell phones. B. widespread opinion about bad effects of cell phones. C. information on the lethal effects of cell phones. D. the negative public use of cell phones. Question 75: The changes possibly caused by the cell phones are mainly concerned with A. the smallest units of the brain. C. the mobility of the mind and the body. 363
14. B. the resident memory. D. the arteries of the brain. Question 76: The man mentioned in the passage, who used his cell phone too often, A. had a problem with memory. B. abandoned his family. C. suffered serious loss of mental ability. D. could no longer think lucidly. Question 77: The word "potentially" in the passage most closely means A. “certainly” B. “obviously” C. “privately” D. “possibly” Question 78: According to the passage, what makes mobile phones potentially harmful is A. their radiant light. B. their raiding power. C. their power of attraction. D. their invisible rays. Question 79: According to the writer, people should A. only use mobile phones in urgent cases. B. keep off mobile phones regularly. C. never use mobile phones in all cases. D. only use mobile phones in medical emergencies. Question 80: The most suitable title for the passage could be A. “Mobile Phones: A Must of Our Time” B. “Technological Innovations and Their Price”. C. “The Way Mobile Phones Work”. D. “The Reasons Why Mobile Phones Are Popular”. KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 25 1C 2D 3C 4B 5B 6D 7D 8B 9B 10D 11C 12C 13C 14A 15A 16A 17B 18A 19A 20D 21C 22D 23D 24B 25A 26D 27D 28B 29C 30A 31A 32D 33C 34B 35C 36B 37B 38C 39B 40D 41A 42A 43D 44C 45D 46D 47C 48C 49A 50D 51A 52A 53B 54C 55D 56A 57C 58A 59B 60B 61C 62B 63A 64B 65D 66C 67A 68C 69D 70A 71B 72D 73A 74B 75A 76A 77D 78D 79A 80B PRACTICE TEST 26 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that has its underlined part pronounced differently from that of the other words. Question 1: A. dine B. determine C. undermine D. mine Question 2: A. peach B. heaven C. tease D. feasible Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. imagine B. enormous C. permission D. possible Question 4: A. under B. toward C. above D. behind Question 5: A. mysteriously B. originally C. necessarily D. elaborately Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct one to complete each of the following sentences. Question 6: When he heard the joke, he burst into loud ___. A. amusement B. laughter C. smile D. laughing Question 7: The boss ___ to his secretary using the office phone for personal calls. A. disagrees B. objects C. criticizes D. disapproves. Question 8: Hardly ___ the captain of the team when he had to face the problems. A. had he been appointed B. was he being appointed C. did he appoint D. was he appointing Question 9: ___ Columbus was one of ___ first people to cross ___ Atlantic. A. _ /the/ _ B. The/ the/ the C. _ / the/ an D. _ / the / the Question 10: By 2050, medical technology ___ many diseases. A. has conquered B. will conquer C. will have conquered D. is conquering Question 11: Neither of them will be treated preferentially, ___? A. won’t they B. will they C. won’t them D. will them 364
15. Question 12: The Red List is a special book that provides names of ___ animals. A. vulnerable and endangered B. vulnerable and dangerous C. endangered and hunted D. extinct and killed Question 13: The ___ of the pagoda in the water was very clear and beautiful. A. sight B. mirror C. reflection D. shadow Question 14: During the starvation, we used to keep a ___ of dried food in the factory. A. conserve B. substitute C. reserve D. preserve Question 15: As I won’t be able to attend the meeting, I’d like you to sign ___. A. on my account B. on my name C. on my place D. on my behalf Question 16: “What an attractive hair style you have got, Mary!” – “___. ” A. Thank you very much. I’m afraid B. Thank you for your compliment C. You are telling lie D. I don’t like your saying Question 17: Tony is so ___ that his friends tend to tell him all their problems. A. confidential B. critical C. optimistic D. sympathetic Question 18: “Hello, I’d like to speak with Mrs Smith. ” – “___” A. Sure B. Who are you C. Hang on, please, I will put you through D. Of course you can Question 19: A university education is of course important but it is essential that all employees undergo a period of intensive ___. A. preparation B. learning C. training D. concentration Question 20: Anne: “Make yourself at home” John: “___” A. Not at all. Don’t mention it. B. Yes, Can I help you? C. That’s very kind. Thank you D. Thanks! Same to you. Question 21: The member of the Red Cross were dedicated their whole life to ___ the suffering of human beings. A. reducing B. reductive C. reduction D. reduce Question 22: Now that they have read it in ___, They believe me. A. white and black B. black and white C. red and blue D. blue and red Question 23: It is ___ that I can’t put it down. A. so interesting a book B. so interesting book C. such interesting book D. too interesting book Question 24: They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong, I could ___. A. see them off B. see off them C. see through them D. see them through Question 25: I couldn’t believe that they were brothers. They were as different as ___. A. Mars and Jupiter B. chalk and cheese C. dogs and cats D. milk from honey Question 26: The rumors go that Jason will be arrested. He is said ___ a bloody robbery. A. to have taken part in B. to have joined in C. to join in D. to take part in Question 27: My tooth is painful. I must go t o see the dentist and get it ___. A. pull out B. pulled out C. to pull out D. pulling out Question 28: Please move along to make ___ the new computer. A. seat for B. room for C. a room for D. place for Question 29: They are accustomed ___ up late at weekends. A. with getting B. to get C. by getting D. to getting Question 30: ___ of all these changes in the society is that women have more freedom. As a result B. A result C. The results D. The result Question 31: He says a full time teacher doesn’t earn ___ a part - time salesman. A. As many as B. as more than C. as much as D. as more as Question 32: They ___ for more than five miles but they didn’t stop to rest. A. were walking B. have walked C. had been walking D. have been walking Question 33: ___ things about learning is communicating with people from around the world. 365
16. A. One best B. one of best C. The best D. One of the best Question 34: ___ they are tropical birds, parrots can live in temperate or even cold climates. A. Despite B. Even though C. Nevertheless D. Because Question 35: ___, the results couldn’t be better. A. No matter what he tried hard B. No matter how hard he tried C. Although very hard he tried D. Despite how hard he tried Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 36: According to a journalist’s report, there was a heavy loss of lives in the disaster. It is reported that there was a heavy loss of lives in the disaster. There reported to have a heavy loss of lives in the disaster. A journalist reports that the lives were lost heavily in the disaster. A heavy loss of lives is reported to be in the disaster. Question 37: When did you start playing chess? A. How long have you started playing chess? B. Since when have you been playing chess? C. How long did you start playing chess? D. How long ago have you played chess? Question 38: Apparently the car did not sustain some damage. The car seems to have sustained some damage The car appears not to have sustained any damage. It looks as if the car did not sustain any apparent damage. It is apparent that the damage to the car was not sustainable. Question 39: If I were you, I would take a rest. I think you should take a rest B. You would better take a rest C. Why didn’t you take a rest? D. Let’s take a rest, shall we? Question 40: Neil Armstrong stepped on the moon first. Neil Armstrong was the first step on the moon. It was Neil Armstrong who stepping on the moon first. Neil Armstrong was the first to step on the moon. Neil Armstrong was the first stepping on the moon. Choose the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word or phrase. Question 41: As a government official, Benjamin Franklin often traveled abroad. widely B. secretly C. alone D. overseas Question 42: American poet James Merrily received critical acclaim for his work entitled Jim’s Book. advice B. disapproval C. praise D. attention Question 43: A revolution in women’s fashion during the second half of the twentieth century made trousers acceptable for almost all activities. A. available B. permissible C. attractive D. ideal Question 44: No fan, electric or otherwise, actually cools the air. truly B. haphazardly C. persistently D. continuouslly Question 45: The climate of Chicago is subject to abrupt changes of weather. sudden B. extreme C. adverse D. disruptive Circle A, B, C or D to find a mistake in the four underlined parts of each sentence. Question 46: New laws (A) should be introduced (B) to reduce the number (C) of traffic in the city center(D). Laws B. be introduced C. number D. city center Question 47: Since (A)fireworks are dangerous(B), many countries have laws preventing (C) business to sell (D) them. Since B. are dangerous C. preventing D. to sell Question 48: A majority (A) students in this (B) university are (C) from overseas(D). A majority B. in this C. are D. overseas Question 49: You should (A) stop to smoke (B) because it is (C) very harmful for (D) your health. 366
17. Should B. to smoke C. it is D. for Question 50: One of (A) the students who are being (B)considered for the (C) scholarship are (D) from this university. One of B. are being C. for the D. are Read the passage below and choose one correct answer (A, B, C or D) to each question. Traditionally in America, helping the poor was a matter for private charities or local government. Arriving immigrants depended mainly on predecessors from their homeland to help them start a new life. In the late 19th and early 20th centuries, several European nations instituted public-welfare programs. But such a movement was slow to take hold in the United States because the rapid pace of industrialization and the ready availability of farmland seemed to confirm the belief that anyone who was willing to work could find a job. Most of the programs started during the Depression era were temporary relief measures, but one of the programs – Social Security – has become an American institution. Paid for by deduction from the paychecks of working people, Social Security ensures that retired persons receive a modest monthly income and also provides unemployment insurance, disability insurance, and other assistance to those who need it. Social Security payments to retired persons can start at age 62, but many wait until age 65, when the payments are slightly higher. Recently, there has been concern that the Social Security fund may not have enough money to fulfill its obligations in the 21st century, when the population of elderly Americans is expected to increase dramatically. Policy makes have proposed various ways to make up the anticipated deficit, but a long-term solution is still being debated. In the years since Roosevelt, other American presidents have established assistance programs. These include Medical and Medicare; food stamps, certificates that people can use to purchase food; and public housing which is built at federal expense and made available to persons with low incomes. Needy Americans can also turn to sources other than government for help. A broad spectrum of private charities and voluntary organizations is available. Volunteerism is on the rise in the United States, especially among retired persons. It is estimated that almost 50 percent of Americans over age 18 do volunteer work, and nearly 75 percen of U. S. households contribute money to charity. Question 51: New immigrants to the U. S. could seek help from ___. A. the U. S. government agencies B. volunteer organizations C. the people who came earlier D. only charity organizations Question 52: Public-welfare programs were unable to take firm root in the U. S. due to the fast growth of ___. A. population B. urbanization C. modernization D. industrialization Question 53: The word “instituted” in the first paragraph mostly means ___. A. enforced B. introduced C. carried out D. studied Question 54: The Social Security program has become possible thanks to ___. A. people’s willingness to word B. enforcement laws C. deductions from wages D. donations from companies Question 55: Most of the public assistance programs ___ after the severe conomic crisis. A. did not become institutionalized B. did not work in institutions C. were introduced into institutions D. functioned fruitfully in institutions Question 56: That Social Security payments will be a burden comes from the concern that ___. A. the program discourages working people B. younger people do not want to work C. elderly people ask for more money D. the number of elderly people is growing Question 57: Persons with low incomes can access public housing through ___. A. state spending B. federal expenditure C. low rents D. donations Question 58: Americans with low incomes can seek help from ___. A. government agencies B. federak government C. non- government agencies D. state government Question 59: Purlic assistance has become more and more popular due to ___. 367
18. A. people’s growing commitment to charity B. taxpayers;s increasing commitment pay C. young people’s volunteerism D. volunteer organizations Question 60: The passage mainly discusses ___. A. immigration into America B. public assistance in America C. funding agencies in America D. ways of fund-raising in America Read the text and then decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. Women nowadays have more (61) ___ than those in the past. For example, our great grandmothers were not allowed to go to school or to work to earn their own living. (62) ___, they had to depend on their husbands financially. Modern women, on the contrary, can get good education, have their own careers, and (63) ___ their interests. They can even take good positions in politics if they are competent (64) ___ it. However, women living in our modern society have their (65) ___, too. Today’s women work harder than their great grandmothers so that they can gain the (66) ___ between working life and family life. Many people predict that by 2032, most (67) ___ positions at work will be taken by women. Then, it is possible that women will have more (68) ___ life because, (69) ___ in a very modern society, the women can’t (70) ___ their role in the family. Question 61: A. advances B. advantages C. benefits D. conveniences Question 62: A. Therefore B. However C. As a result D. Although Question 63: A. pursue B. support C. promote D. stimulate Question 64: A. to B. at C. with D. of Question 65: A. obstacles B. disputes C. profits D. problems Question 66: A. equality B. stable C. balance D. steadiness Question 67: A. senior B. junior C. inferior D. superior Question 68: A. sheltered B. healthy C. strenuous D. active Question 69: A. though B. even C. ever D. never Question 70: A. perform B. adopt C. fulfill D. neglect Read the following passage, and mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. There are desert plants which survive the dry season un the form of inactive seeds. There are also desert insects which servive as inactive larvae or pupae. In addition, difficult as it is to believe, there are desert fish which can survive through years of drought in the form of inactive eggs. These are shrimps that live in the Mojave Desert, an intensely dry region in the southwest of the United States where shade temperatures of over 500C are often recorded. The eggs are in the size and have the appearance of grains of sand. When sufficient spring rain falls to form a lake, once every two to five years, these eggs hatch. Then the water soon swarms with millions of tiny shrimps about a millimeter long which feed on microscopic plant and animal: organisms which grow in the temporary desert lake. Within a week, the shrimps grow from their original 1 millimeter to a length of about 1 ẵ centimeters. Throught the time that the shrimps are rapidly maturing, the water in the lake equally rapidly evorporates. Therefore, it is a race against time. By the twelfth day, when they are about 3 centimeters long, hundreds of tiny eggs form on the underbodies of the females, Usually, by this time, all that remains of the lake is a large, muddy patch of wet soil. On the thirteenth day and the next, during the final hours of their brief lives, the females lay their eggs in the mud. Then, having ensured that their species will survive, the shrimps die as the last of the water evaporates. If sufficient rain falls the following year to form another lake, the eggs hatch, and once again cycle of growth, adulthood, egg-laying, and death is rapidly passed through. If there is unsufficient rain to form a lake, the eggs lie dormant for a year, or even longer if necessary. Occasionally, prehaps twice in a hundred years, sufficient rain falls to form a deep lake that lasts a month or more. In this case, the species passes through two cycles of growth, egg-laying and death. Thus the species multiplies considerably, which further ensures its survival. Question 71: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. The effects of drought in the desert B. The lifespan of fish eggs in desert conditions 368
19. C. The survival of insects in a desert climate D. The importance of deep lakes in the desert Question 72: The word “form” in the first paragraph is closest in meaning to ___. A. style B. shape C. nature D. design Question 73: From the passage, it can be inferred that the Mojave Desert is unusual because ___. A. it is hit even in the shade B. rain rarely falls there C. it shelters inactive life D. very little survives there Question 74: The author compares inactive eggs to ___. A. shrimps B. sand C. larvae D. seeds Question 75: The word “These” in the first paragraph refers to ___. A. plans B. eggs C. insects D. fish Question 76: According to passage, the eggs originate ___. A. in the sand B. on the female C. in the mud D. in the lake Question 77: The word “swarms” in the second paragraph could best be replaced by ___. A. abounds B. grows C. crowd D. supports Question 78: According to passage, approximately how long does a shrimps live? A. 1 week B. 12 days C. 13 days D. 14 days plus Question 79: The word “dormant” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ___. A. dead B. asleep C. passive D. empty Question 80: What does the author mean by the phrase “a race against time” in the second paragraph? A. The shrimps are in intense competition to reproduce. B. The shrimps must reproduce before the waters recede. C. The shrimps do not have enough time to reproduce. D. Death occurs before the shrimps can reproduce. KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 26 1B 2B 3D 4A 5C 6B 7B 8A 9D 10C 11B 12A 13C 14C 15D 16B 17D 18C 19C 20B 21A 22B 23A 24D 25B 26A 27B 28B 29D 30D 31C 32C 33D 34B 35B 36A 37B 38B 39A 40C 41D 42C 43B 44A 45A 46D 47D 48A 49B 50D 51C 52D 53B 54C 55A 56D 57B 58C 59A 60B 61B 62C 63A 64B 65D 66C 67A 68C 69B 70D 71B 72A 73C 74B 75D 76B 77A 78C 79C 80B PRACTICE TEST 27 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. conventional B. preservative C. reliable D. intellectual Question 2: A. environment B. superstition C. technology D. predominance Question 3: A. computer B. customer C. property D. energy Question 4: A. decisive B. popular C. impatient D. observant Question 5: A. occur B. struggle C. enlarge D. survive Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 6: I could hear voices but I couldn’t ___ what they were saying. A. bring about B. turn up C. make out D. try out Question 7: ___ he got top marks at high school, he never went to university. A. Nevertheless B. Despite C. Although D. Meanwhile th Question 8: Applications ___ in after 30 April will not be considered. A. send B. sent C. which sent D. that is sent Question 9: Sammy had worked in England for a year ___ moving to Scotland. A. until B. once C. before D. while 369
20. Question 10: The girl was used ___ birthday presents from her brothers. A. to being received B. to receiving C. to be receiving D. to receive Question 11: ___ always gives me real pleasure. A. While arranging flowers B. Arranging flowers C. The flowers are arranged D. I arrange flowers Question 12: The theory of relativity ___ by Einstein, who was a famous physicist. A. was developed B. developed C. is developed D. develops Question 13: ___ was the tea that we couldn’t drink it. A. So strong B. No longer C. How strong D. Hardly ever Question 14: Kay: “I wouldn’t do that if I were you. ” John: “___” A. Wouldn’t you? Why? B. It’s out of the question. C. Would you, really? D. I’d rather you didn’t. Question 15: The higher the content of carbon dioxide in the air is, ___. A. the more heat it retains B. the heat it retains more C. it retains the more heat D. more heat it retains Question 16: Be sure not to rely too ___ on your mother tongue when you are learning a foreign language. A. heavily B. numerously C. severely D. abundantly Question 17: Mary: “The hat’s so beautiful. Thanks. " Tony: “___” A. The same to you! B. Great idea! C. Lucky you! D. I’m glad you like it. Question 18: In our team, no person ___ John could finish this tough task in such a short time. A. including B. other than C. outside D. rather than Question 19: “It’s about time you ___ your homework, Mary. ” A. will do B. do C. must do D. did Question 20: ___ a few more minutes, we could have finished the task. A. If we had B. Unless we had C. If we have D. If we had had Question 21: Do you remember ___ to help us when we were in difficulty? A. once offering B. to offer C. being offered D. you offer Question 22: Lucy: “You look really nice in that red sweater!” Sue: “___” A. How dare you? B. I’m afraid so. C. Thank you. D. Don’t mention it. Question 23: Communities in remote areas are extremely ___ to famine if crops fail. A. vulnerable B. disappointed C. defenseless D. helpless Question 24: Tom hasn't completed the work yet and Maria hasn't ___. A. neither B. either C. also D. too Question 25: We could have caught the last train, but we ___ five minutes late. A. would be B. have been C. are D. were Question 26: The superstar, accompanied by the other members of the band, ___ to visit our school next week. A. are going B. has had C. are D. is going Question 27: We received a call from the teacher ___ charge of our course. A. to B. in C. at D. on Question 28: In my apartment there are two rooms, ___ is used as the living-room. A. the largest one B. the large one C. the largest of which D. the larger of which Question 29: Mrs. Chau has managed the department ___ that she’ll be promoted next month. A. very successful B. so successfully C. too successful D. too successfully Question 30: We hoped ___ they would come and give us new lectures. A. what B. that C. which D. when Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 31: Now many people who shop at a health food store instead of a local supermarket are much more likely to find a healthy, sugar-free beverage. 370
21. A. harmful to health B. full of preservatives C. beneficial to health D. convenient to prepare Question 32: Thanks to the invention of the microscope, biologists can now gain insights into the nature of the human cell. A. far-sighted views B. spectacular sightings C. in-depth studies D. deep understanding Question 33: Dozens of applicants showed up for the vacant position, but only a handful of them were shortlisted for the interview. A. small number B. class C. small amount D. hand Question 34: Even though the mountain was very steep and the climb was hazardous, several adventurous tourists managed to reach the top. A. bringing excitement B. resulting in depression C. costing a lot of money D. causing a lot of risks Question 35: Just like hearing infants who start first with simple syllable babbling, then put more syllables together to sound like real sentences and questions, deaf babies follow the same pattern. A. obedient to parents B. physically abnormal C. hard of hearing D. able to hear Đọc bài văn, chọn đáp án điền vào chỗ trống: Many of the things we do (26) on receiving information from other people. Catching a train, making a phone call and going to the cinema all involve information (27) . stored, processed and communicated. In the past this information had to be kept on paper (28) , for example, books, newspapers and timetables. Now more and more information is put (29) . computers. Computers play a role in our everyday lives, sometimes without us even realising it. (30) . the use of computers in both shops and offices. Big shops have to deal with very large (31) of information. They have to make sure that there are enough goods on the shelves for customers to buy, they need to be able to reorder before (32) run out. A lot of office work in the past involved information on paper. Once it had been dealt with by people, the paper was (33) for future reference. This way of working was never (34) easy or fast. A computer system is much more (35) 36. A. to depend B. depending C. depended D. depend 37. A. that has B. has C. is D. that is 38. A. in the case of B. in the form of C. in preparation for D. in search of 39. A. on B. in C. by D. with 40. A. To be considered B. To consider C. Consider D. Be considered 41. A. amount B. number C. numbers D. amounts 42. A. stocks B. items C. purchases D. cargoes 43. A. thrown away B. torn off C. put aside D. recycled 44. A. particularized B. particular C. particularly D. particularity 45. A. effective B. skillful C. capable D. formal Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 16 to 25. The ability to conduct electricity is one of the key properties of a metal. Other solid materials such as silicon can conduct electricity but only effectively at certain temperatures. Also, some substances such as salt (sodium chloride) can conduct when molten or when dissolved in water. The ability of metals to conduct electricity is due to how their atoms bond together. In order to bond together the metal atoms lose at least one of their outermost electrons. This leaves the metal atoms with a positive charge and they are now strictly ions. The lost electrons are free to move in what is known as a sea of electrons. Since the electrons are negatively charged they attract the ions and this is what keeps the structure together. An electric current is a flow of charge and since the electrons in the sea of electrons are free to move they can be made to flow in one direction when a source of electrical energy such as a battery is connected to the metal. Hence we have an electric current flowing through the wire, and this is what makes metals such good conductors of electricity. The only other common solid conducting material that pencil users are likely to encounter is graphite (what the ‘lead’ of a pencil is made from). Graphite is a form of carbon and again the carbon atoms bond in such a way that there is a sea of electrons that can be made to flow as an electric current. Likewise, if we have an ionic substance like salt we can make the electrically charged ions flow to create a current but only when those ions are free to move, either when the substance is a 371
22. liquid or dissolved in water. In its solid state an ionic substance like salt cannot conduct electricity as its charged ions cannot flow. Electrical insulators are substances that cannot conduct electricity well either, because they contain no charged particles or any charged particles they might contain do not flow easily. Water itself is a poor conductor of electricity as it does not contain a significant amount of fully charged particles (the ends of a water molecule are partly charged but overall the molecule is neutral). However, most water we encounter does contain dissolved charged particles, so it will be more conductive than pure water. Many of the problems that occur when touching electrical devices with wet hands result from the ever-present salt that is left on our skin through perspiration and it dissolves in the water to make it more conductive. Question 46: Electrical conductivity is ___. A. completely impossible for silicon B. one of the key properties of most solid materials C. impossible for any substance when it is dissolved in water D. one of the most important properties of metals Question 47: According to the passage, a metal can conduct electricity due to ___. A. the absence of free electrons B. the loss of one electron in the core of its atoms C. the way its atoms bond together D. its atoms with a positive charge Question 48: The word “outermost” in paragraph 1 mostly means ___. A. nearest to the inside B. furthest from the inside C. the heaviest D. the lightest Question 49: The atoms of a metal can bond together because ___. A. electrons can flow in a single direction B. the lost electrons cannot move freely in the sea of electrons C. they lose all of their electrons D. negatively charged electrons attract positive ions Question 50: Salt in its solid state is not able to conduct electricity because ___. A. it has free electrons B. its charged ions are not free to move C. its charged ions can flow easily D. it cannot create any charged ions Question 51: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. electrical insulators B. electric currents C. charged particles D. charged ions Question 52: Water is a poor conductor because it contains ___. A. only a small amount of fully charged particles B. only a positive electric charge C. no positive or negative electric charge D. only a negative electric charge Question 53: We can have problems when touching electrical devices with wet hands because ___. A. the water dissolves the salt on our skin and becomes more conductive B. the water contains too many neutral molecules C. the water containing no charged particles makes it more conductive D. the water itself is a good conductor of electricity Question 54: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Salt can conduct electricity when it is molten or dissolved. B. Some materials are more conductive than others. C. Graphite is a common solid substance that can conduct electricity. D. Pure water is much more conductive than most water we encounter every day. Question 55: Which of the following could best serve as the title of the passage? A. Electrical Devices B. Electrical Energy C. Electrical Insulators D. Electrical Conductivity Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70. 372
23. A radio telescope is a radio receiver that "sees" radio waves. Unlike a normal telescope, which sees light, a radio telescope is used primarily in the area of astronomy because it can detect radio waves that are emitted by celestial objects. Such objects in space, also called radio objects, can be things such as hot gas, electrons, and wavelengths given off by different atoms and molecules. The first radio telescope was invented by Grote Reber in 1937. He was an American who graduated with a degree in engineering. He went on to work as an amateur radio operator and later decided to try to build his own radio telescope in his backyard. Reber's first two radio receivers failed to pick up any signals from outer space, but in 1938, his third radio telescope successfully picked up radio waves from space. A radio telescope consists of a large parabolic-shaped dish antenna or a combination of two or more. The significance of the parabolic shape allows for the incoming radio waves to be concentrated on one focal point, allowing the signals to be picked up as strongly as possible. A larger dish means that more signals can be received and focalized. In the late 1950s and early 1960s, the largest radio telescope of the time was invented with a seventy-six- meter telescope although larger telescopes have been made since then. The largest current radio telescope in the world is the RATAN-600 in Russia, whose diameter is 576 meters. It has provided valuable feedback of the sun's radio wavelengths and atmosphere. The largest radio telescope in Europe is a 100- meter diameter telescope in Germany, and the largest radio telescope in the United States is the Big Ear in the state of Ohio. The largest array of telescopes is the Giant Metrewave Radio Telescope in India. Radio telescopes have provided scientists with valuable information about our universe. One of the most important functions of radio telescopes is their ability to allow scientists to track different space probes, the unmanned space missions in outer space. Radio telescopes allow for the travel of space probes into places like the surface of Mars that are too dangerous for men to explore. Without radio wave technology, scientists would not know much of what inhabits the universe nor would they be able to see it. Radio waves are our eyes and ears in outer space. Question 56: According to the passage, a radio telescope enables the detection of ___. A. creatures that inhabit celestial objects B. shapes and sizes of celestial objects C. normal light of celestial objects D. radio waves sent out by celestial objects Question 57: According to paragraph 2, all of the following are true about Grote Reber EXCEPT that ___. A. he was an inventor B. he was an amateur radio operator C. he was an engineer D. he was an astronomer Question 58: Grote Reber’s idea to develop a radio telescope was not successful until ___. A. he picked up signals from outer space B. he graduated from an engineering school C. he experimented on the third one D. he first built one in his backyard Question 59: The verb “pick up” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. send B. lift C. receive D. select Question 60: According to the passage, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. A larger dish antenna helps a radio telescope produce better results. B. The Big Ear in the United States produces the largest array of telescopes. C. The pattern of radio waves received by radio telescopes is significant. D. The largest radio telescope of all time is the one with a seventy-six-meter diameter. Question 61: The word “current” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to ___. A. existing B. moving C. electricity flow D. water movement Question 62: The word “they” in paragraph 5 refers to ___. A. places B. radio waves C. scientists D. eyes and ears Question 63: Radio waves are scientists’ eyes and ears in outer space because ___. A. they can recognize who dominates the universe B. they help to track only manned space missions in space C. they allow them to travel to such dangerous places as Mars D. they can help them understand more about the universe Question 64: The focus of discussion in the passage is ___. A. radio waves B. radio telescopes C. radio operators D. atoms and molecules Question 65: Originally, this passage was probably published in ___. A. a business journal B. a fashion magazine 373
24. C. a scientific journal D. a book on environment Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 66: These exercises look easy, but they are very relatively difficult for us. A B C D Question 67: As the old one, this new copier can perform its functions in half the time. A B C D Question 68: After our discussion, we decided to take a later flight and so that we could spend more time A B C D with the clients. Question 69: The assumption that smoking has bad effects on our health have been proved. A B C D Question 70: Our astronauts chosen for fly spacecraft were selected from military test pilots. A B C D Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is CLOSEST in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 71: It’s difficult for me to understand what he implies. A. What he implies is not very difficult to understand. B. Understanding what he implies is found difficult. C. I find it difficult to understand what he really means. D. To understand what he really means is difficult to find. Question 72: There is no question of changing my mind about resigning. A. Nobody knows about my decision on resigning. B. I certainly won’t change my mind about resigning. C. They asked me no question about resigning. D. I should have changed my mind about resigning. Question 73: John said, “You’d better not lend them any money, Daisy. ” A. John ordered Daisy not to lend them any money. B. John commanded Daisy not to lend them any money. C. John advised Daisy not to lend them any money. D. John asked Daisy if she had lent them any money. Question 74: I had two job offers upon graduation, neither of which was appropriate for my qualifications. A. Though I wasn't qualified enough, two jobs were offered to me upon graduation. B. The two jobs offered to me after my graduation didn’t suit my qualifications. C. I was offered two jobs soon after my graduation, both of which were suitable for my qualifications. D. Both of the job offers I had prior to my graduation were appropriate for my qualifications. Question 75: I forgot to lock the door before leaving. A. I remembered that I left the door locked before going out. B. I didn’t remember whether I locked the door before leaving. C. I left without remembering to lock the door. D. I locked the door before leaving, but I forgot about it. Question 76: They arrived too late to get good seats. A. Although they were late, they found some good seats. B. They got good seats some time after they arrived. C. As they got there too late, there were no good seats left. D. They had to stand for the whole show. Question 77: It was only when I left home that I realized how much my family meant to me. A. Before I left home, I realized how much my family meant to me. B. As soon as I left home, I found out what a family could do without. C. Not until I left home did I realize how much my family meant to me. D. I left home and didn’t realize how meaningful my family was. Question 78: When there is so much traffic on the roads, it is sometimes quicker to walk than to go by car. A. It is faster to walk than to drive in the heavy traffic at certain time of the day. B. During rush hours, walking gives me much more pleasure than driving in the heavy traffic. 374
25. C. There is so much traffic these days that it is more pleasant to walk than to drive. D. The traffic is always so heavy that you’d better walk to work; it’s quicker. Question 79: "Get out of my car or I'll call the police!" Jane shouted to the strange man. A. Jane politely told the man she would call the police if he didn’t leave her car. B. Jane informed the strange man that she would call the police. C. Jane threatened to call the police if the man didn’t leave her car. D. Jane plainly said that she would call the police. Question 80: This village is inaccessible in winter due to heavy snow. A. Nobody likes to come to this village in winter because of heavy snow. B. We have no difficulty reaching this village in winter because of heavy snow. C. We cannot gain permission to this village in winter because of heavy snow. D. Heavy snow makes it impossible to reach the village in winter. KEYS TO PRACTICE TEST 27 1. D 21. A 41. A 61. A 2. B 22. C 42. D 62. C 3. A 23. A 43. C 63. D 4. B 24. B 44. C 64. B 5. B 25. D 45. A 65. C 6. C 26. D 46. D 66. C 7. C 27. B 47. C 67. A 8. B 28. D 48. B 68. C 9. C 29. B 49. D 69. D 10. B 30. B 50. B 70. A 11. B 31. C 51. A 71. C 12. A 32. D 52. A 72. B 13. A 33. A 53. A 73. C 14. A 34. D 54. D 74. B 15. A 35. D 55. D 75. C 16. A 36. C 56. D 76. C 17. D 37. D 57. D 77. C 18. B 38. B 58. C 78. A 19. D 39. A 59. C 79. C 20 D 40. C 60. A 80. D PRACTICE TEST 28 Mark A,B,C or D to indicate the word that is pronounced differently from the rest. 1. A. days B. says C. ways D. plays 2. A. compared B. shared C. hatred D. repaired 3. A. architect B. scholarship C. character D. champagne Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following words 4. A. character B. institute C. courageous D. internet 5. A. certificate B. compulsory C. eradicate D. automatic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, from 6 to 8 6. She agreed to collaborate with him in writing her biography A. resist B. fight C. confront D. cooperate 375
26. 7. The builder’s conservative estimate of the time required to remodel the kitchen was six weeks A. reactionary B. cautious C. protective D. traditional 8. The notice was declared such a long time ago that it can't be seen now. A. is blind B. is unnoticed C. is invisible D. is unvisible Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions, from 9 to 38 9. I suggest that the doctor ___ up his mind without delay. A. makes B. make C. made D. is to make 10. I can’t ___ sense of a word he is saying. A. comprehend B. understand C. grasp D. make sense 11. The UN has demanded that all troops___ withdrawn A. be B. will be C. shall be D. were 12. I'm feeling sick. I ___ so much chocolate last night. A. needn't to eat B. did not eat C. mustn't eat D. shouldn't have eaten 13. Young people ___ to succeed in life should work hard. A. who wanting B. want C. wanting D. wanted 14. One approach to the study of stress is to identify events that cause psychological . A. disrupting B. disrupts C. disrupt D. disruption 15. So little___ about mathematics that the lecture was completely beyond me. A. I have known B. I knew C. do I know D. did I know 16. Mr. Goldsmith ___ in his office when somebody threw a stone through the window. A. worked B. is working C. has worked D was working 17. of the students know the answer to that question. A. Most B. Almost C. Mostly D. The most 18. Only in Japan the high levels of western countries. A. industrialization has reached B. industrialization is reached C. has industrialization reached D. is industrialization reached 19. If the students on time, they'd have enjoyed the pictures. A. had come B. came C. have come D. come 20. ___ so aggressive, we’d get on much better. A. She was not B. Had she not C. Weren’t she D. If she weren’t 21. It’s essential that every student ___ the exam before attending the course. A. pass B. passes C. would pass D. passed 22. ___ in Paris before, he didn't know his way around when he took his family there. A. Not be living B His not living C. Because he has livedD. Never having lived 23. Well, it was nice talking to you, but I have to dash. - Liz: ___ A. OK, see you later. B. Yes, I enjoyed talking to you, too C. Yes, It was. D. Thanks! I will stop now. 24. The factory is said ___ in a fire two years ago. A. being destroyed B. to destroy C. to have destroyed D. to have been destroyed 25. “Would you mind giving me a hand with this bag?” B - “ ___. ” A. Yes, I’ll do it now. B. No, not at all. C. Yes, I am. D. Well, I’d love to 26. Forget all and try your best next time - Lightning never ___ twice in the same place. A. hits B. Attacks C. Beats D. strikes 27. I must go to the dentist and ___. A. have my teeth taken care of B. my teeth be taken care of C. have my teeth to take care of D. take care of my teeth 28. -"I'm sorry. I won't be able to come". - Mary: “___”. A. Sounds like fun B. Well, never mind C. Oh, that's annoying D. Great 29. I’m so tired that I can’t take ___ what you‘re saying 376
27. A. over B. out C. in D. on 30. The greater the demand, ___ the price. A. the higher B. the high C. Higher D. the highest 31. I just can’t___that noise any longer! A. sit out B. stand in for C. put up with D. stand up for 32. - . his dangerous driving, Barry has never been caught by the police. A. In spite B. Although C. Despite D. However 33. ___ seemed a miracle to us. A. When he had recovered so soon B. That he recovered so soon C. His recover after so soon D. His being recovered so soon 34. It is very difficult to___ the exact meaning of an idiom in a foreign language. A. convert B. convey C. exchange D. transfer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions or indicate the correct answer to each of them, from 35 to 44 35. I didn't listen to him, and I didn't succeed. A. If I listened to him, I would succeed. B. If I had listened to him, I would succeed. C. If I listened to him, I would have succeed. D. If I had listened to him, I would have succeeded. 36. Though he tried hard, he didn't succeed A. However hard he tried, he didn't succeed. B. However he tried hard, he didn't succeed. c. However he didn't succeed, he tried hard D. However he tried hard, but he didn't succeed. 37. I like to play tennis in the summer. A I am very interested on playing tennis in the summer. B. I am very keen in playing tennis in the summer. C. I am very interested to playing tennis in the summer. D. I am very fond of playing tennis in the summer. 38. They usually have quite a big meal at lunch time. A. They are used to having a big meal at lunch time. B. They are used to have a big meal at lunch time. C. They are used to have a big meal at lunch time. D. They used to having a big meal at lunch time. 39. Despite feeling cold we kept walking. A. Although we felt cold, but we kept walking. B. Cold as we felt, we kept walking. C. However cold we felt, but we kept walking. D. However we felt cold, we kept walking. 40. "I'm sorry I have to leave so early," he said. A. He apologized for having to leave early. B. He apologized to have to leave early. C. He apologized that he has to leave early. D. He apologized to have left early. 41. He talked about nothing except the weather. A. He talked about everything including the weather. B. His sole topic of conversation was the weather. C. He said that he had no interest in the weather. D. He had nothing to say about the weather. 42. The boy was not allowed to have any friends, so he felt lonely. 377
28. A. Having no friends, the boy felt so lonely. B. Not having friends, they made the boy feel lonely. C. Having a lot of friends, the boy felt lonely. D. Deprived of friends, the boy felt lonely. 43. Unless someone has a key, we cannot get into the house. A. We could not get into the house if someone had a key. B. If someone does not have a key, we can only get into the house. C. We can only get into the house if someone has a key. D. If someone did not have a key, we could not get into the house. 44. Conan said to me, "If I were you, I would read different types of books in different ways. " A. Conan ordered me to read different types of books in different ways. B. I said to Conan to read different types of books in different ways to me. C. I read different types of books in different ways to Conan as he told me. D. Conan advised me to read different types of books in different ways. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions, from 45 to 51 45. There should be new measures to discourage car use in favour of public transport. A. prevent B. encourage C. disapprove D. disconnect 46. I don’t like the way he refers to his problems obliquely. A. directly B. indirectly C. politely D. impolitely Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction, from 47 to 51 47. The British labor movement developed as a means of improve working conditions through group efforts. A B C D 48. Poverty in the United States is noticeably different from that in the others countries. A B C D 49. Five-credits-hour courses are approved for the student's work in the major field of interest. A B C D 50. The basic law of addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division are taught to all elementary A B C school students D 51. On Aprial 14, 1865, an actor named John Wilkes Booth, angered by the South’s defeat in the A B C Civil War, shot and had killed Precident Abraham Lincoln D Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions, from 52 to 60 The Works Progress Administration (WPA) was formed in 1935 during the height of the Great Depression as part of President Franklin Delano Roosevelt's New Deal package to bring the economy around and provide relief for the millions of unemployed throughout the country; the goal of the program was to maintain peoples' skills and respect by providing work to as many as possible during this period of massive unemployment. For the eight years that the WPA was in existence from 1935 to 1943, the WPA was responsible for providing jobs to approximately eight million people at a cost of more than eleven billion dollars. One of the more controversial programs of the WPA was the Federal Arts Project, a program to employ artists full-time at such tasks as painting murals in libraries, theaters, train stations, and airports; teaching various techniques of art; and preparing a comprehensive study of American crafts. Criticism of the program centered on what was perceived as the frivolity of supporting the arts at a time when millions were starving, industry was sagging, farms were barren, and all that could flourish were bankruptcy courts and soup kitchens. 52. This passage mainly discusses 378
29. A. the Great Depression B. the benefits of Franklin Delano Roosevelt's New Deal C. the New Deal and one of its controversies D. bankruptcy courts and soup kitchens 53. The word "package" could best be replaced by A. carton B. secret gift C. box D. bundle of ralated items 54. According to the passage, the stated purpose of the WPA was to A. create new American masterpieces B. raise the standard of American art C. introduce new art techniques to the American public D. improve the economy 55. The word "massive" in line 5 is closest in meaning to A. tremendous B. rocky C. clustered D. dangerous 56 The word "controversial" is closest in meaning to A. disputed B. successful C. creative D. comprehensive 57. All the following probably helped to make the Federal Arts Project controversial EXCEPT that A. the Federal Arts Project employed many who would otherwise have been out of work B. train stations and airports were decorated with murals C. the Federal Arts Project commissioned art works D. a tremendous study of American crafts was produced 58. The expression "centered on" could best be replaced by A. encircled B. located on C. focused on D. surrounded 59. When the author states that " all that could flourish were bankruptcy courts and soup kitchens," he or she probably means that A. banks and restaurants did well during the Depression B. the poor could not afford to use banks or eat soup C. the only organizations to thrive were those that dealt with the poor D. many restaurants declared bankruptcy during the Depression 60. Where in the passage does the author give examples of artistic jobs? A. lines 1-6 B. lines 6-8 C. lines 9-12 D. lines 12-15 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 61 to 70. The invention of the electric telegraph gave birth to the communications industry. Although Samuel B. Morse succeeded in making the invention useful in 1837, It was not until 1843 that the first telegraph line of consequence was contributed. By 1860, more than 50,000 miles of lines had connected people east of the Rockies. The following year, San Francisco was added to the network. The national telegraph network fortified the ties between East and West and contributed to the rapid expansion of the railroads by providing and efficient means to monitors schedules and routes. Furthermore, the extension of the telegraph, combined with the invention of the steam-driven rotary printing press by Richard M. Hoe in 1846, revolutionized the world of Journalism. Where the business of news gathering had been dependent upon the mail and on hand -operated presses, the telegraph expanded the amount of information a newspaper could supply and allowed for timelier reporting. The establishment of the Associated Press as a central wire service in 1846 marked the advent of a new ers in journalism. 61. The main topic of the passage is___. A. the history of journalism B. the origin of the national telegraph network C. how the telegraph network contributed to the expansion of railroads D. the contributions and development of the telegraph network 62. according to the passage, how did the telegraph enhance the business of news gathering? A. By allowing for timelier reporting B. By adding San Francisco t the network C. By expanding the railroads 379
30. D. By monitoring schedules and routes for the railroads 63. The author’s main purpose in this passage is to___. A. compare the invention of the telegraph with the invention of the steam-driven rotary press B. propose new ways to develop the communications industry C. show how the electric telegraph affected the communications industry D. criticize Samuel B. Morse 64. The phrase “the Rockies” in the first paragraph refers to___. A. a telephone company B. the West Coast C. a mountain range D. a railroad company 65. It can be inferred from the passage that___. A. Samuel Morse did not make a significant contribution to the communications industry B. Morse’s invention immediately achieved its full potential C. The extension of the telegraph was more important than its invention D. Journalists have the Associated Press to thank for the birth of the communications industry 66. The word “ revolutionized” in the second paragraph is closest in meaning to___. A. destroyed B. revolved C gathered D. transformed 67. According to the passage, which of the following is Not true about the growth of the communications industry? A. Morse invented the telegraph in 1837. B. People could use the telegraph in San Francisco in 1861. C. The telegraph led to the invention of the rotary printing press. D. The telegraph helped connect the entire nation. 68. The word “gathering “in the second paragraph refers to. A). people B. information C. objects D. computer magazine 69. This passage would most likely be found in a___. A U. S. history book B. book on trains C. science textbook D. computer magazine 70. How does the author feel about the invention of the electric telegraph? A. indifferent B. admiring C. neutral D. uninterested Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word for each of the blanks, from 71 to 80 At 19, Ben Way was already a millionaire, and one of a number of teenagers who___(71) their fortune through the Internet. ___(72) makes Ben’s story all the more remarkable is that he is dyslexic, and was___ (73)by teachers at his junior school that he would never be able to read or write properly. ” I wanted to prove them___ (74)“, says Ben, creator and director of Waysearch engine which can be used to find goods in online shopping malls. When he was eight, his local authorities___(75) him with a PC to help with school work. Althrough he was___ (76)to read the manuals, he had a natural ability with the computer, and encouraged by his father, he soon began___(77) people $ 10 an hour for his knowledge and skills. At the age of 15 he ___(78) up his own computer consultancy, Quad Computer, which he ran from his bedroom, and two years later he left school to___(79) all his time to business. “By this time the company had grown and needed to take___(80) a couple of employees to help me”, says Ben. That enabled me to start doing business with bigger companies. It was his ability to consistently overcome difficult challenges that led him to win the “Young Entrepreneur of the year” award in the same year that he formed Waysearch. 71. A. taken B. made C. put D. done 72. A. This B. That C. Something D. What 73. A. said B. told C. suggested D. reported 74. A. wrong B. false C. untrue D. unfair 75. A. provided B. gave C. offered D. got 76. A. imppossible B. incapable C. disabled D. unable 77. A. owing B. charging C. lending D. borrowing 78. A. put B. ran C. made D. set 79. A. pay B. spend C. devote D. invest 380
31. 80. A. on B. up C. out D. over KEY TO PRACTICE 28 QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER QUESTION ANSWER 1 B 21 A 41 B 61 D 2 C 22 D 42 D 62 A 3 D 23 A 43 C 63 C 4 C 24 D 44 D 64 C 5 D 25 B 45 B 65 B 6 D 26 D 46 A 66 D 7 B 27 A 47 C 67 C 8 28 B 48 D 68 B 9 B 29 C 49 A 69 A 10 D 30 A 50 C 70 B 11 A 31 C 51 D 71 B 12 B 32 B 52 C 72 D 13 C 33 B 53 D 73 B 14 D 34 B 54 D 74 A 15 D 35 D 55 A 75 A 16 D 36 A 56 A 76 D 17 A 37 D 57 A 77 B 18 C 38 A 58 C 78 D 19 A 39 B 59 C 79 C 20 D 40 A 60 C 80 A Contents PHẦN I: CÁC CHUYÊN ĐỀ 1 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 1: CÁC THÌ (TENSES) 1 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 2: SỰ HOÀ HỢP GIỮA CHỦ NGỮ VÀ ĐỘNG TỪ (SUBJECT-VERB AGREEMENT) 8 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 3: DANH ĐỘNG TỪ VÀ ĐỘNG TỪ NGUYÊN THỂ (GERUND AND INFINITIVE) 13 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 4: CÂU GIẢ ĐỊNH (SUBJUNCTIVE) 24 381
32. CHUYÊN ĐỀ 5: CÂU BỊ ĐỘNG (PASSIVE VOICE) 35 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 6: CÂU GIÁN TIẾP (REPORTED SPEECH) 46 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 7: MỆNH ĐỀ QUAN HỆ (RELATIVE CLAUSES) 57 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 8: COMPARISON 67 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 9: LIÊN TỪ (CONJUNCTIONS) 80 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 10: MẠO TỪ (ARTICLES) 84 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 11: GIỚI TỪ (PREPOSITIONS) 99 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 12: CÁC TỪ (CỤM TỪ) DIỄN TẢ SỐ LƯỢNG (EXPRESSIONS OF QUANTITY) 104 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 13: CỤM ĐỘNG TỪ (PHRASAL VERBS) 111 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 14: CẤU TẠO TỪ (WORD FORMATION) 121 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 15: ĐẢO NGỮ (INVERSIONS) 130 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 16: SỰ KẾT HỢP TỪ (COLLOCATIONS) 138 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 17: MỆNH ĐỀ TRẠNG NGỮ (ADVERBIAL CLAUSES) 153 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 18: NGỮ ÂM (PHONETICS) 164 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 19: KỸ NĂNG ĐỌC (READING SKILLS) 185 CHUYÊN ĐỀ 20: CHỨC NĂNG GIAO TIẾP (COMMUNICATION SKILL) 206 PHẦN II: CÁC ĐỀ LUYỆN THI 220 PRACTICE TEST 1 220 PRACTICE TEST 2 225 PRACTICE TEST 3 231 PRACTICE TEST 4 236 PRACTICE TEST 5 242 PRACTICE TEST 6 247 PRACTICE TEST 7 252 PRACTICE TEST 8 257 PRACTICE TEST 9 263 PRACTICE TEST 10 269 PRACTICE TEST 11 274 PRACTICE TEST 12 279 PRACTICE TEST 13 286 PRACTICE TEST 14 293 PRACTICE TEST 15 299 PRACTICE TEST 16 304 PRACTICE TEST 17 311 PRACTICE TEST 18 316 PRACTICE TEST 19 322 PRACTICE TEST 20 329 PRACTICE TEST 21 335 PRACTICE TEST 23 347 PRACTICE TEST 24 353 PRACTICE TEST 25 358 PRACTICE TEST 26 364 PRACTICE TEST 27 369 PRACTICE TEST 28 375 382