Trial test 1- Đề ôn tốt nghiệp 2021

Nội dung text: Trial test 1- Đề ôn tốt nghiệp 2021

1. TRIAL TEST 1- ĐỀ ÔN TN 2021- 50 CÂU Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from that of the others 1. A. effective B. energy C. restore D. engage 2. A. laughed B. sacrificed C. cooked D. explained Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 3. I’m becoming increasingly forgettable. Last week I locked myself out of the house twice. A. forgetable B. becoming C. out D. the 4. Mr Brown’s jokes are inappropriate but we have to put up with them just because they are the boss. A. inappropriate B. they C. because D. with 5. Last summer holiday, he visits Phong Nha-Ke Bang National park with his friends. A. National B. friends C. visits D. with Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 6. Peter___ a better understanding of Algebra than we do. A. makes B. has C. takes D. does 7. She made a big___ about not having a window seat on the plane. A.complaint B. interest C. excitement D. fuss 8. I've hardly slept because my infant has been crying at the top of her ___ all night. A. eyes B. voice C. lungs D. heart 9. In the formal interview, it is essential to maintain good eye ___ with the interviewers. A. contact B. touch C. link D. connection 10. She was pleased that things were going on ___. A. satisfy B. satisfactorily C. satisfactory D. satisfaction 11. She didn’t close the door, ___? A. does she B. doesn’t she C. did she D. didn’t she 12. The more I tried my best to help her, ___ she became. A. less lazy B. the lazier C. the more lazy D. lazier 13. He will apply for a job ___ from university. A. when he is graduating B. until he graduated C. after he had graduated D. as soon as he graduates 14. This bridge ___ in 1970 when my grandfather graduated from school. A. built B. was built C. was build D. has built 15. When the boss walked into the office, his secretary ___. A. has been typing B. was typing C. is typing D. had typed 16. He managed to win the race ___ hurting his foot before the race. A. in spite of B. despite of C. although D. because of 17. His novel is based ___ historical occurences but it lurs the line between fact and fiction. A. of B. about C. on D. into 18. ___ all necessary information, he started writing his report. A. Collected B. To collect C. Being collected D. Having collected 19. She has just bought a (n) ___painting. A. interesting French oldB. old interesting French C. French interesting old D. interesting old French 20. I was late for work because my alarm clock did not ___. A. turn off B. put off C. send off D. go off Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 21. John was in Hanoi and wanted to send a parcel to his parents. He asked a local passer-by the way to the post-office. John: “Can you show me the way to the nearest post office, please?”- Passer-by: “___ “ A. Not way, sorry B. Just round the corner over there. C. Look it up in a dictionary! D. There’s no traffic near here. 22. Silas is talking to his roommate, Salah, about the Olympic Games. ~ Silas: “Do you think our country can host the Olympic Games some day in the future?” 1
2. ~ Salah: “___. We can’t afford such a big event. “ A. You can say that again B. I can’t agree with you more C. Yes, you’re right D. No, I don’t think so Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. 23. You don’t give me a chance to tell you the truth. It’s a pity. A. I wish you didn’t give me a chance to tell you the truth. B. I wish you gave me a chance to tell you the truth. C. I wish you had given me a chance to tell you the truth. D. I wish you hadn’t given me a chance to tell you the truth. 24. The government does not know what to do with household rubbish in large cities. A. Little does the government know what to do with household rubbish in large cities. B. It is unknown what to do with household rubbish in large cities by the government. C. Rarely the government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities. D. Hardly any government knows what to do with household rubbish in large cities. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 25. “Don’t forget to submit your assignments by Thursday,” said the teacher to the students. A. The teacher reminded the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. B. The teacher allowed the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. C. The teacher ordered the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. D. The teacher encouraged the students to submit their assignments by Thursday. 26. It is unnecessary for you to finish the report until tomorrow. A. You needn’t finish the report until tomorrow. B. You have to finish the report until tomorrow. C. You may finish the report after tomorrow. D. You should finish the report until tomorrow. 27. She began to play the piano three years ago. A. She has played the piano since three years. B. She has played the piano for three years C. She doesn’t play the piano now. D. She stops playing the piano now. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 28 to 32. Urban development is having a direct impact on the weather in (28) ___ cities worldwide. It has been noticed that the difference in temperature is usually greater at night and the phenomenon occurs in both winter and summer. Experts agree that this is due to urban development, when open green spaces are replaced with asphalt roads and tall brick or concrete buildings. These materials retain heat generated by the Sun and release it through the night. In Atlanta, in the US, this has even led to thunderstorms (29) ___ occur in the morning rather than, as is more common, in the afternoon. Large cities around the world are adopting strategies to combat this issue, (30) ___ it is not uncommon to find plants growing on top of roofs or down the walls of large buildings. In Singapore, the government has (31) ___ to transform it into a “city within a garden” and, in 2006, they held an international competition calling for entries to develop a master plan to help bring this about. One outcome was the creation of 18 “Supertrees” – metal constructions resembling very tall trees. Each one is a vertical freestanding garden and is (32) ___ to exotic plants and ferns. They also contain solar panels used to light the trees at night and also containers to collect rainwater, making them truly self-sufficient. 28. A. one B. many C. each D. much 29. A. which B. where C. what D. when 30. A. however B. for C. otherwise D. and 31. A. committed B. pledged C. confessed D. required 32. A. land B. house C. place D. home Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 33 to 39. It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world’s population will live in cities, up from about 54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to recognize that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure, potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. 2
3. These risks can only be further exacerbated as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues. How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed. The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before. Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network effects while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas. But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world’s urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease. The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of rapid and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas we find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance. 33. According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization? A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development. B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective. C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved. D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation. 34. Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage? A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well. B. 54% of the world’s population will live in cities by 2050. C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed. D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty. 35. The word “addressed” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on 36. What can be inferred from the passage? A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization. B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities. C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities. D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment. 37. Which is the most suitable title for the passage? A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries. B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities. C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy. 38. The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___. A. need B. start C. encourage D. design 39. The word “that” in paragraph 4 refers to ___. A. urban expansion B. socio-economic disparities C. disease D. unsanitary conditions Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your Answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 40. Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules. A. uncomplicated B. unimportant C. unlucky D. unsociable 41. Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness. A. betrayed B. emphasized C. revealed D. disfigured 3
4. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. 42. Driver are advised to get enough petrol because filling stations are few and far between on the highway. A. unlikely to happen B. difficult to access C. easy to find D. impossible to reach 43. She decided to remain celibate and devote her life to helping the homeless and orphans. A. divorced B. separated C. single D. married Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other 44. A. argument B. condition C. enrollment D. mechanic 45. A. submit B. swalow C. manage D. pracice Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50. Edward Patrick Eagan was born on April 26th 1897 in Denver, Colorado, and his father died in a railroad accident when Eagan was only one year old. He and his four brothers were raised by his mother, who earned a small income from teaching foreign languages. Inspired by Frank Marriwell, the hero of a series of popular novels for boys, Eagan pursued an education for himself and an interest in boxing. He attended the University of Denver for a year before serving in the U. S. army as an artillery lieutenant during World War I. After the war, he entered Yale University and while studying there, won the US national amateur heavyweight boxing title. He graduated from Yale in 1921, attended Harvard Law School, and received a Rhodes scholarship to the University of Oxford where he received his A.M. in 1928. While studying at Oxford, Eagan became the first American to win the British amateur boxing championship. Eagan won his first gold medal as a light heavyweight boxer at the 1920 Olympic Games in Antwerp, Belgium. Eagan also fought at the 1924 Olympics in Paris as a heavyweight but failed to get a medal. Though he had taken up the sport just three weeks before the competition, he managed to win a second gold medal as a member of four-man bobsled team at the 1932 Olympics in Lake Placid, New York. Thus, he became the only athlete to win gold medals at both the Summer and Winter Olympics. (Adapted from “Peteson’s Master TOEFL Reading Skills) 46. According to the passage, who was Frank Merriwell? A. A teacher at Yale B. A student at Oxford C. A. fictional character D. A bobsledder at the Olympics 47. The word “Inspired” in paragraph 2 in CLOSEST in meaning to ___. A. stopped B. challenged C. calmed D. stimulated 48. According to the passage, Eagan won all of the following EXCEPT ___. A. British amateur boxing championship. B. U. S. national amateur heavyweight boxing title. C. Heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal.D. Light heavyweight boxing, Olympic gold medal. 49. The word “the competition” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. sport B. 1932 Olympics C. gold medals D. Summer Olympics 50. What is the main idea of the passage? A. Eagan’s life shows that a man can be an athlete and a well-educated person. B. Eagan’s life shows that military experiences make athletes great. C. Eagan’s life shows how a wealthy student can achieve as much as a poor one. D. Eagan’s life shows how easy it is to win two gold medals in different Olympic sports. THE END! 4
5. TRIAL TEST 2- ĐỀ ÔN TN 2021- 50 CÂU Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your Answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 1: This cruel perpetrator should be put into the prison immediately. A. criminal B. judge C. victim D. police Question 2: She was brought up in a well-off family. She can’t understand the problems we are facing. A. poor B. broke C. wealthy D. kind Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to Indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 3: I didn’t tell her that he was sick because I didn’t want to cause her any alarm. A. worry B. inform C. comfort D. warn Question 4: Social psychologists have recently noticed strange behavior from people having suffered from terrible shocks. A. rare B. common C. negative D. formal Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 5 to 9: Have you ever had the feeling that people older than you are hard to understand? Or, have you felt like people from younger generations just don’t get it? Maybe you find it easier to connect with people (5) ___ are closer to your age than those who are older or younger than you. You can probably thank the generation gap for these feelings. There are currently six generations living in the United States: the Greatest Generation, Silent Generation, Baby Boomers, Generation X, Millennials, and Generation Z. (6) ___ generation has its own unique set of characteristics and norms. For (7) ___ , the Greatest Generation (born 1901-1924)is known for its patriotism, hard workers, and loyalty to institutions. The Millennials (born 1980-2000)are characterized by their dependence on technology, detachment from traditional institutions, optimism, and open-mindedness. It is no (8) ___ that many people from different generations have a hard time understanding each other. Generation gap refers to differences in actions, beliefs, interests, and opinions that exist between individuals from different generations. (9) ___ , what causes these differences? (Adapted from Question 5: A. who B. which C. when D. what Question 6: A. Another B. Very C. All D. Each Question 7: A. answer B. process C. example D. study Question 8: A. wonder B. picture C. business D. training Question 9: A. And B. So C. But D. So that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 10: Thanh and Nadia have just listened to Lan’s song. Thanh: “Lan’s the best singer in our school.”Nadia: “__. I really love her beautiful voice.“ A. Yes, tell me about it! B. I can’t agree with you more! C. That’s OK! D. Yes, please. Question 11: Lan is talking to Peter, his new classmate, in the classroom. Lan: “Where is your new apartment, Peter?”- Peter: “___.” A. bout five kilometres from here B. I don’t agree with you. C. Not too expensive D. I don’t know Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 12: Your brother stays at home, ___? A. won’t he B. didn’t he C. doesn’t he D. isn’t he Question 13: Many students are supportive ___ their classmate. A. about B. on C. of D. to Question 14: There are many ___ history books in our library. A. interesting American old B. old American interesting C. interesting old American D. American interesting old Question 15: ___ a flat is, the higher the rent is. 5
6. A. Bigger B. The bigger C. Biggest D. The biggest Question 16: The local people ___ to the opening ceremony of the new museum by the organization. A. invited B. were invited C. were inviting D. invite Question 17: My friend ___ in the kitchen when a thief broke into his house. A. was cooking B. is cooking C. cooked D. cooks Question 18: Our principal will have devoted to our school l for 20 years ___ to work for another school in Hanoi. A. by the time she starts B. when she started C. as soon as she had started D. after she had started Question 19: ___ producing cars, he decided to invest in developing medicine. A. Having succeeded in B. Succeeded in C. To succeed in D. Being succeeded in Question 20: My sister is a woman of ___ age. A. marriage B. married C. marrying D. marriageable Question 21: In the early years of the 20th century, several rebellions ___ in the northern parts of the country. A. turned out B. rose up C. broke out D. came up Question 22: People have used coal and oil to ___ electricity for a long time. A. bred B. raise C. cultivate D. generate Question 23: Teachers’ ___ would rise an average of $1000 under the proposal. A. pensions B. salaries C. wages D. revenues Question 24: Mary seems to have her head in the ___. She has dreamt of becoming a talented student, but she doesn’t work hard at all. A. clouds B. winds C. breeze D. rain Question 25: We regret to tell you that the ___ you ordered your new fashion collection are out of stock. A. materials B. fossil fuel C. iron D. gas Question 26: The festival hasn’t been popular with youngsters ___ many attractions including contemporary orchestra music and an opera. A. because of B. because C. though D. in spite of Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 27: For such a demanding job, my employees will need qualifications, soft skills and have his full commitment. A. need B. such C. his D. skills Question 28: In 1969 the astronauts who landed on the Moon collected examples of rocks and soil. A. In B. landed C. examples D. who Question 29: New sources of energy are looked for as the number of fossil fuels continues to decrease 2 years ago. A. are looked B. sources C. number D. contues Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 30: She had only just put the telephone down when the boss rang. A. She put the telephone down and the boss rang. B. Hardly had she put the telephone down when the boss rang. C. The boss rang back, but she put the telephone down. D. She had put the telephone down, so she let it ring when the boss rang. Question 31: My parents can’t lend me the money to afford a course abroad. A. I wish my parents could lend me the money to afford a course abroad. B. But for that my parents can lend me the money, I can’t afford a course abroad. C. If my parents had lent me the money, I can afford the course. D. Provided my parents lend me the money, I cannot afford the course abroad. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 32 to 36. 6
7. Stars have been significant features in the design of many United States coins and their number has varied from one to forty-eight stars. Most of the coins issued from about 1799 to the early years of the twentieth century bore thirteen stars representing the thirteen original colonies. Curiously enough, the first American silver coins, issued in 1794, had fifteen stars because by that time Vermont and Kentucky have joined the Union. At that time it was apparently the intention of mint officials to add a star for each new state. Following the admission of Tennessee in 1796, for example, some varieties of half dimes, dimes, and half dollars were produced with sixteen stars. As more states were admitted to the Union, however, it quickly became apparent that this scheme would not prove practical and the coins from 1798 were issued with only thirteen Stars - one for each of the original colonies. Due to an error at the mint, one variety of the 1828 half-cent was issued with only twelve stars. There is also a variety of the large cent with only 12 stars, but this is the result of a die break and is not a true error. Question 32: The word “their” in line 1 refers to ___. A. features B. coins C. stars D. colonies Question 33: The expression “Curiously enough” is used because the author finds it strange that ___. A. no silver coins were issued until 1794 B. Tennessee was the first state to use half dimes C. Vermont and Kentucky joined the Union in 1794 D. silver coins with fifteen stars appeared before coins with thirteen Question 34: Why was a coin produced in 1828 with only twelve stars? A. Tennessee had left the Union. B. The mint made a mistake. C. There were twelve states at the time. D. There is a change in design policy. Question 35: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as the denomination of an American coin? A. Half nickel B. Half-dollar C. Hall cent D. Half dime Question 36: What is the main topic of the passage? A. Colonial stamps and coins C. The star as national symbol of the United States B. Stars on American coins D. The teaching of astronomy in state universities Read the following passage and Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 37 to 43. To quote CREST founder Dr. Martha Honey, we earnestly believe that ecotourism is “simply a better way to travel. “Here’s a look at how this transformational approach to travel benefits conservation, increases cross- cultural understanding, and ultimately turns travelers into environmental advocates: To see how ecotourism benefits nature and wildlife, let’s look at endangered species such as African Elephants. Ivory from Elephant tusks is worth $1500 a pound on the black market, which has led to a dramatic increase in poaching. But Elephants are worth 76 times more alive than dead. When you consider the revenue from wildlife photography tours, luxury safari camps, and other ecotourism offerings, a single Elephant is worth $1. 3 million over the course of its lifetime! Ecotourism offers a long-term alternative to exploitation, generating sustainable revenue and ensuring better overall health of the ecosystem. Nature reserves and national parks help prevent deforestation and pollution, while also protecting the habitat of endemic species. The revenue that ecotourism provides can help replace profits from exploitative practices such as mining or slash ‘n’ burn agriculture. It can also help ensure the long-term financial viability of the area. Naturalist guides also help travelers understand the value of a pristine ecosystem, and teach them about the importance of conservation. This ultimately help to create a more mindful and conscious legion of travelers. When managed properly, ecotourism can offer locals alternative revenue streams. In wildlife-rich countries such as Rwanda, former poachers are often employed as guides or trackers, capitalizing on their knowledge of the animals and their habitat. In Costa Rica, unemployment has fallen to less than 10% since the country started building its ecotourism infrastructure in the 1970s. Involving local communities in tourism management empowers them by ensuring that more revenue is reinvested locally. Ecotourism also offers indigenous peoples an opportunity to remain on ancestral land, conserve it, and preserve traditional culture. Sure, being a responsible traveler takes a greater level of commitment to being conscious and mindful of the impact we have on the destinations we visit. But ecotourism also offers us incredible, transformative experiences, allowing us to develop closer personal relationships to the nature, wildlife, and local people we encounter during our adventures. Learning about ecotourism can permanently change your understanding of 7
8. mankind’s role in our planetary ecosystem. And once you’ve had that sort of travel experience, you’ll never want to travel the traditional way again. (Adapted from: ith. org. za/what-is-eco-tourism/) Question 37: The word “revenue” in paragraph 2 most likely means ___. A. reward B. benefit C. profit D. interest Question 38: The word “pristine” in paragraph 3 most likely means ___. A. natural B. untouched C. beautiful D. dirty Question 39: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to ___. A. species B. relationships C. poachers D. locals Question 40: According to paragraph 3, in what direction can ethical tourism help the society? A. Ecotourism encourages open dialogue about deforestation. B. Ecotourism provides financial support for local communities. C. Sustainable tourism yields substantial environmental benefits. D. Green tourism maintains the balance between animals and human. Question 41: Which of the following statements is TRUE, according to the passage? A. People engage in green tourism only for their self-image. B. Momentary profits are more recommended than long-term ones. C. Indigenous inhabitants are forced to resettle to develop sites for tourism. D. Income from ecotourism can partly be substituted for environmentally harmful industry. Question 42: What can be inferred from the passage? A. Responsible travel is a unique opportunity for business. B. The current sustainable tourism service is just green washing. C. Ecotourism is seasonal in nature, therefore a vulnerable industry. D. Ecotourism is a win-win experience, both for the nature and the people. Question 43: Which best serves as the title for the passage? A. The benefits of ecotourism. B. Making the most of ecotourism. C. An introduction to ecotourism. D. Encourage conservation or adding to exploitation? Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 44: It isn’t necessary for us to get a visa for Singapore. A. We mustn’t get a visa for Singapore. B. We needn’t get a visa for Singapore. C. We mayn’t get a visa for Singapore. D. We shouldn’t get a visa for Singapore. Question 45: I last contacted with him 8 days ago. A. I haven’t contacted with him for 8 days. B. I have contacted with him for 8 days. C. I contacted with him 8 days ago. D. I didn’t contact with him 8 days ago. Question 46: “Finish all your assignment before I return,” the teacher said to his students. A. The teacher asked his students to finish all their assignment before he returned. B. The teacher advised his students to finish all their assignment before he returned. C. The teacher invited his students to finish all their assignment before he returned. D. The teacher offered his students to finish all their assignment before he returned. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 47: A. suggest B. suffer C. impress D. become Question 48: A. impression B. improvement C. family D. pollutant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 49: A. tea B. leather C. leave D. lead Question 50: A. subscribed B. launched C. inspired D. welcomed oOo 8
9. TRIAL TEST 3- ĐỀ ÔN TN 2021- 50 CÂU Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 1: ___ Luong has studied English only for six months, he can speak English very well. A. Though B. Despite C. Because D. Because of Question 2: My brothers are often very ___to what I say. They are really lovable. A. obey B. obedience C. obedient D. obediently Question 3: His parents are really surprised ___ his success. A. with B. at C. to D. about Question 4: I am sorry to hear that Peter and Dick have ___. They were such good friends. A. fallen against B. dropped against C. dropped out D. fallen out Question 5: It was very kind of Peter to ___ me a favor. Had it not been for his help, I wouldn’t have finished my cleaning A. do B. have C. give D. Bring Question 6: The final winner will be the one who breaks through ___ and survives till the last minutes. A. obstacles B. difficulty C. hindrance D. impediment Question 7: Ask David to give you a hand moving the furniture. He’s as strong as ___ A. an elephant B. a mountain C. a gorilla D. a horse Question 8: ___from Tom, I will give you a telephone call. A. Before I will heard B. A. s soon as I hear C. While I was hearing D. After I had heard Question 9: ___ the first-aid course, Joe proves extremely helpful as a rescue worker. A. Finished B. Having finished C. Being finished D. To finish Question 10: She ___ most of the ideas from a book she had been reading. A. bent B. turned C. rose D. lifted Question 11: Her parents let her stay out late, ___? A. haven’t they B. aren’t they C. won’t they D. don’t they Question 12: The robbers ___by the police last night. A. were arrested B. were arresting C. arrested D. arrest Question 13: ___ he gets, the less he wants to travel. A. The oldest B. Oldest C. The older D. Older Question 14: In this film, everyone will remember ___kisses. A. amazing long French B. long amazing French C. long French amazing D. French amazing long Question 15: When the police came, they ___. A. are fighting B. were fighting C. would fight D. fought Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 16: If tasks are too challenging, the result is that learners are discouraged. A. demanding B. fascinating C. stimulating D. encouraging Question 17: A lot of representatives from different organizations participated in the conference yesterday. A. delegates B. presenters C. providers D. nominees Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 18: A. laughed B. wounded C. helped D. missed Question 19: A. print B. fine C. knife D. light Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. contain B. reduce C. publish D. express Question 21: A. committee B. mosquito C. communist D. completion Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. Scientists do not yet thoroughly understand just how the body of an individual becomes sensitive to a substance that is harmless or even wholesome for the average person. Milk, wheat, and egg, for example, rank among the most healthful and widely used foods. 9
10. Yet these foods can cause people sensitive to them to suffer greatly. At first, the body of the individual is not harmed by coming into contact with the substance. After a varying interval of time, usually longer than a few weeks, the body becomes sensitive to it, and an allergy has begun to develop. Sometimes it’s hard to figure out if you have a food allergy, since it can show up so many different ways. Your symptoms could be caused by many other problems. You may have rashes, hives, joint pains mimicking arthritis, headaches, irritability, or depression. The most common food allergies are to milk, eggs, seafood, wheat, nuts, seeds, chocolate, oranges, and tomatoes. Many of these allergies will not develop if these foods are not fed to an infant until her or his intestines mature at around seven months. Breast milk also tends to be protective. Migraines can be set off by foods containing tyramine, phenethylamine, monosodium glutamate, orsodium nitrate.common foods which contain these are chocolate, aged cheeses, sour cream, red wine, pickled herring, chicken livers, avocados, ripe bananas, cured meats, many oriental and prepared foods (read the labels!). Some people have been successful in treating their migraines with supplements of B vitamins, particularly B6 and niacin. Children who are hyperactive may benefit from eliminating food additives, especially colorings, and foods high in salicylates from their diets. A few of these are almonds, green peppers, peaches, tea, grapes. This is the diet made popular by Benjamin Feingold, who has written the book “Why your Child is Hyperactive”. Other researchers have had mixed results when testing whether the diet is effective. (Source: http: //www. nknu. edu. tw) Question 22: According to the passage, the difficulty in diagnosing allergies to foods is due to ___. A. lack of a proper treatment plan. C. the similarity of symptoms of the allergy to other problems B. the use of prepared formula to feed babies D. the vast number of different foods we eat Question 23: The word “symptoms” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. prescriptions B. diet C. diagnosis D. indications Question 24: The word “these” in the last paragraph refers to ___. A. food additives B. food colorings C. innutritious foods D. foods high in salicylates Question 25: Which of the following is TRUE about a suggested treatment for migraines in the passage? A. Getting plenty of sodium nitrate C. Eating more ripe bananas B. Using vitamin B in addition to a good diet D. Avoiding all oriented foods Question 26: The topic of this passage is ___. A. infants and allergies B. food and nutrition C. reactions to food D. a good diet Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions. The Socialist Republic of Vietnam has stood out as one such example of how to effectively respond to the pandemic. Vietnam, which shares a border with China and is about 1, 200 miles from where the outbreak was first reported in Wuhan, has overcome steep odds in the global fight against Covid-19. As of April 6, the Vietnamese government has reported 245 confirmed cases with 95 recoveries and no fatalities. The country’s response to the outbreak has received international recognition, including from the World Health Organization and World Economic Forum, for its comprehensive, low-cost model of disease prevention. WHO representative in Vietnam, Dr. Ki Dong Park, attests the government “has always been proactive and prepared for necessary actions”. The Communist Party of Vietnam has strengthened its anti-pandemic measures by implementing nationwide social distancing rules, such as banning outside gatherings of more than two people while keeping a distance of 6.5 feet, and temporary shutdowns of ‘‘non-essential’’ businesses, including restaurants, entertainment centers and tourist sites. Supermarkets and other essential services remain open, but are instructed to safeguard customers’ health by checking their temperatures before entering the building and providing them with hand sanitizers. In addition, the government has warned against panic buying and has taken action against businesses engaged in price gouging. To ensure social security for affected workers, Vietnam has approved a 111. 55 million dollar financial support package that includes covering all costs for workers in quarantine or are recovering from the disease. Unlike the U. S. capitalist class and the Trump administration, the Vietnamese government took early measures to combat the current coronavirus epidemic. Officials began preparing strategies to combat the outbreak immediately after the first cases emerged in China. 10
11. On February 1. Prime Minister Nguyen Xuan Phuc signed Decision No. l73. QD-TTG, categorizing the virus as a Class A contagious disease “that can transmit very rapidly and spread widely with high mortality rates. “ This declaration of a national emergency came after the sixth case of coronavirus in the country was reported. In contrast, the Trump administration only declared a national emergency over the global pandemic on March 13, when there were at least 1, 920 confirmed cases across 46 states. (Adapted from http: //vietnaminsider. vn/) Question 27: Vietnam’s reaction to the epidemic was acknowledged as a___by the WHO and WEF. A. perfect and expensive model of disease prevention B. comprehensible and economical model of disease prevention C. complete and inexpensive example of disease prevention D. incomplete and luxurious example of disease prevention Question 28: Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a measure to the pandemic in Vietnam? A. prohibiting outside gatherings. C. keeping a distance of 6. 5 feet B. closing unnecessary businesses permanently. D. warning inhabitants against panic buying Question 29: The word “their” in paragraph 4 refers to ___. A. supermarkets’ B. customers’ C. governments’ D. essential services’ Question 30: The word “gouging” in the fourth paragraph most probably means ___. A. rising B. reducing C. stabilizing D. remaining Question 31: Which of the following best serves as the title for the passage? A. Why has no one in Vietnam died of Covid-19? B. How does the pandemic affect Vietnam’s society? C. Vietnam and the U. S in the campaign to combat the pandemic. D. The international recognition for Vietnam’s response to COVID 19. Question 32: What has the Vietnamese government done to help affected workers? A. Keep opening some essential services for their daily needs. B. Support them in finance to help them ensure their daily lives. C. Pay for their costs in quarantine or are getting over the disease. D. Check their temperatures and provide them with hand sanitizers. Question 33: The word “contagious” in the last paragraph is closest in meaning to ___. A. dangerous B. fatal C. hazardous D. infectious Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 34: They are having her house painted by a construction company. A. having B. her C. painted D. construction Question 35: I’m becoming increasingly forgettable. Last week I locked out of the house twice. A. becoming B. forgettable C. locked D. the Question 36: He played for the national team in 65 matches so far. A. played B. national C. in D. matches Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to the sentence given in each of the following questions. Question 37. “If I were you, I’d tell him the truth,” she said to me. A. She prevented me from telling him the truth. B. She blamed me for telling him the truth. C. She refused to tell him the truth if she were me. D. She advised me to tell him the truth. Question 38. It’s possible that Joanna haven’t received my message. A. Joanna had better receive my message. B. Joanna might not receive my message. C. Joanna could receive my message. D. Joanna can’t receive my message. Question 39. I last saw Robin three weeks ago. A. I have seen Robin for three weeks. B. I saw Robin for three weeks. C. I haven’t seen Robin for three weeks. D. It’s three weeks after I have seen Robin. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions: Question 40. Jenifer speaks English badly. She can not study abroad. A. If only Jenifer had spoken English well. B. If Jenifer speaks English badly, she can study abroad. 11
12. C. As long as Jenifer speaks English well, she can not go abroad to study. D. Jenifer wishes she could speak English well to study abroad. Question 41. She went to live in London. She realized how much she loved Hanoi. A. Were she to go to live in London, she would realize how much she loved Hanoi. B. Only when she went to live in London, did she realize how much she loved Hanoi. C. Not until she had realized how much she loved Hanoi did she go to live in London. D. Had she gone to live in London, she would have realized how much she loved Hanoi. Mark the letter A, B, C or D to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 42: The soldier rashly agreed to lead the dangerous expedition. A. cautiously B. heroically C. recklessly D. reluctantly Question 43: Wendy is on the horns of a dilemma: she just wonders whether to go for a picnic with her friends or to stay at home with her family. A. unwilling to make a decision C. able to make a choice B. eager to make a plan D. unready to make up her mind Mark the letter A, B C, or D to indicate the most suitable response to complete each of the following exchanges. Question 44: Peter and Mary are talking about the TV program they like best. - Peter: “What kind of TV program do you like best?”- Mary: “ ___.” A. It’s hard to say, actually C. I’m too busy to say B. I like them very much D. I only watch them at weekends Question 45: Mai is talking to Tam about Da Lat. - Mai: “It seemed to me that the test we took last week was quite easy.” - Tam: “ ___. It was really simple.” A. You’re exactly right B. You’re dead wrong C. I couldn’t agree less D. You could be right Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Since the early eighties, we have been only too aware of the devastating effects of large-scale environmental pollution. Such pollution is generally the result of poor government planning in many developing nations or the shortsighted, selfish policies of the already industrialized countries, which encourage a minority of the world’s population to (46) ___ the majority of its natural resources. While events such as the deforestation of the Amazon jungle or the nuclear disaster in Chernobyl continue to receive high media exposure, as do acts of environmental sabotage, it must be remembered that not all pollution is on this grand scale. A large proportion of the world’s pollution has its source much closer to home. The recent spillage of crude oil from an oil (47) ___ accidentally discharging its cargo straight into Sydney not only caused serious damage to the harbor foreshores but also created severely toxic fumes (48) ___ hung over the suburbs for days and left the angry residents wondering how such a disaster could have been allowed to happen. Avoiding pollution can be a fulltime job. Try not to inhale traffic fumes; keep away from Chemical plants and building-sites; wear a mask when cycling. It is enough to make you want to stay at home. (49) ___, according to a growing body of scientific evidence, that would also be a bad idea. Research shows that levels of pollutants such as hazardous gases, particulate matter and other chemical ‘nasties’ are usually higher indoors than out, even in the most polluted cities. Since the average American spends 18 hours indoors for (50)___ hour outside, it looks as though many environmentalists may be attacking the wrong target. (Adapted from IELTS by Cambridge) Question 46: A. squander B. use C. reserve D. protect Question 47: A. box B. container C. cistern D. tanker Question 48: A. who B. which C. where D. whom Question 49: A. because B. although C. However D. so Question 50: A. many B. every C. other D. some oOo 12