Đề ôn thi tốt nghiệp THPT - Môn; Tiếng Anh

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  1. ĐỀ ÔN THI TỐT NGHIỆP THPT 2020 -2021 PRACTICE TEST 1 Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1:A. changeB. stayC. sawD. lay Question 2:A. stoppedB. lookedC. missed D. shared Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. reduceB. controlC. describe D. cancel Question 4: A. newspaperB. recommendC. magazineD. understand Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: She’s never been to Ha Long Bay before, ___? A. isn’t sheB. is sheC. hasn’t she D. has she Question 6: The larger the city, ___ the crime rate. A. the higher B. higher C. highest D. the highest Question 7: Mary will have finished all her work ___. A. as soon as her boss returned B. until her boss returned C. by the time her boss returnsD. when her boss had return Question 8: ___ the fire for 12 hours, the firemen succeeded in putting it out. A. Fought B. Having foughtC. To fight D. Being fought Question 9: The children were watching TV when their mother ___ home. A. comes B. was coming C. cameD. has come Question 10: The flower girl wore a ___ dress at the wedding ceremony last night A. silk white JapaneseB. silk Japanese whiteC. Japanese white silk D. white Japanese silk Question 11: The green campaign ___ by the local people. A. was strongly supported B. strongly supported C. was strongly supportingD. strongly supports Question 12: ___ the weather was bad, we had a wonderful holiday with a lot of interesting activities. A. Despite B. AlthoughC. Due toD. Because Question 13: It's great that you got that job - you should be proud ___ yourself. A. in B. with C. forD. of Question 14: Her newly-published book is ___ from the previous ones. A. differently B. differ C. different D. difference Question 15: I've just spent two weeks ___an aunt of mine who's been ill. A. looking after B. putting on C. setting upD. breaking up Question 16: She ___ such a fuss when Tim spilled a drop of wine on her blouse. A. tookB. gave C. madeD. did Question 17: The residents are fighting tooth and ___ to stop the new development. A. nailB. hairC. mouthD. tongue Question 18:The International Red Cross helps to ensure respect for the human being, and to prevent and relieve human ___. A. protectionB. enjoyment C. wealth D. sufferings 1
  2. Question 19: The former Olympic ___ was invited to speak at a charity dinner. A. champion B. victory C. trophy D. triumph Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the un- derlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 20: Her style of dress accentuated her extreme slenderness. A. betrayed B. emphasized C. revealed D. disfigured Question 21: Shopping on the internet can be safe if you follow a few simple rules. A. uncomplicatedB. unimportantC. unluckyD. unsociable Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: After the referee blew the whistle to end the game, the whole team was subdued in their unexpected defeat. A. failure B. conquest C. victory D. mission Question 23: I don’t know what they are going to ask in the job interview. I’ll just play it by ear. A. plan well in advance B. be careful about it C. listen to others saying D. do not plan beforehand Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the fol- lowing exchanges. Question 24: Tom: “How did you get here?” John: “___” A. half an hour drive from hereB. The train is so crowded. C. You looked great D. I came here by train. Question 25: Sarah and Kathy are talking about bad habits of children. Sarah: “Children under ten shouldn’t stay up late to play computer games” Kathy: “___. That’s not good for their health.” A. Nothing more to sayB. I don’t think you’re right. C. I don’t quite agree with you.D. I can’t agree with you more. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. A person (26) ___ tosses a can or a napkin on the ground is contributing to land pollution. This type of pollution mainly (27)___ the depositing on land of solid wastes that cannot be broken down quickly or, in some cases, at all. Heaps of trash are not only unpleasant to look at - they can also interfere with the lives of plants and animals. Land pollution also includes the build-up of poisonous chemicals on land. The use of pesticides in farming is a major source of this type of pollution. These chemicals are spread over fields to kill insects, weeds, fungi, or rodents that are a (28) ___ to crops. But pesticides harm or kill (29)___ living things too. (30)___ they drift with the wind or become absorbed into fruits and vegetables, they can become a source of health problems such as cancer and birth defects. Question 26:A. who B. which C. where D. why Question 27:A. contains B. involves C. detects D. remains Question 28:A. risk B. destruction C. improvement D. threat Question 29:A. another B. every C. otherD. much Question 30:A. When B. Due to C. However D. As 2
  3. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. The Singapore Science Centre is located on a six-hectare site in Jurong. At the centre, we can discover the wonders of science and technology in a fun way. Clap your hands and colorful bulbs will light up. Start a wheel spinning and it will set off a fan churning. It is a place to answer our curiosity and capture our imagination. The centre features over four hundred exhibits covering topics like solar radiation, communication, electronics, mathematics, nuclear energy and evolution. It aims to arouse interest in science and technology among us and the general public. The centre is the first science one to be established in South East Asia. It was opened in 1977 and it now receives an average of one thousand, two hundred visitors a day. The exhibits can be found in four exhibition galleries. They are the Lobby, Physical Sciences, Life Sciences and Aviation. These exhibits are renewed annually so as to encourage visitors to make return visits to the centre. Instead of the usual “Hands off” notices found in exhibition halls, visitors are invited to touch and feel the exhibits, push the buttons, turn the cranks or pedals. This is an interesting way to learn science even if you hate the subject. A Discovery Centre was built for children between the ages of three and twelve. This new exhibition gallery was completed in 1985. Lately this year a stone-age exhibit was built. It shows us about the animals and people which were extinct. (Source: language123.blogspot.com) Question 31: What can be the best title of the passage? A. Singapore Science Centre B. Science Centre C. Discovery Centre D. Physical Sciences Question 32: The word “It” in paragraph 2 refers to ___. A. the centre B. the general public C. evolution D. solar radiation Question 33: According to the paragraph 2, which of the following is NOT true about the Singapore Science Centre? A. Visitors are encouraged to return to the centre. B. The centre was not opened until 1977. C. The exhibits in the centre cover a wide range of topics. D. The centre is the first one established in the world. Question 34: It is stated in paragraph 2 that ___. A. the science centre makes people interested in science and technology B. only students can visit the science centre C. visitors don’t want to come back to the science centre D. there are only several exhibits in the science centre Question 35 : The author mentions all of the following in the passage EXCEPT ___. A. The exhibits are renewed every year. B. The centre is located in Jurong. C. There are four exhibition galleries in the centre. D. The centre is the biggest in Asia. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 36 to 42. There are many mistakes that people make when writing their resume (CV) or completing a job application. Here are some of the most common and most serious. 3
  4. The biggest problem is perhaps listing the duties for which you were responsible in a past position: all this tells your potential employers is what you were supposed to do. They do not necessarily know the specific skills you used in executing them, nor do they know what results you achieved - both of which are essential. In short, they won’t know if you were the best, the worst or just average in your position. The more concrete information you can include, the better. As far as possible, provide measurements of what you accomplished. If any innovations you introduced saved the organization money, how much did they save? If you found a way of increasing productivity, by what percentage did you increase it? Writing what you are trying to achieve in life - your objective - is a waste of space. It tells the employer what you are interested in. Do you really think that employers care what you want? No, they are interested in what they want! Instead, use that space for a career summary. A good one is brief - three to four sentences long. A good one will make the person reviewing your application want to read further. Many resumes list ‘hard’ job-specific skills, almost to the exclusion of transferable, or ‘soft’, skills. However, your ability to negotiate effectively, for example, can be just as important as your technical skills. All information you give should be relevant, so carefully consider the job for which you are applying. If you are applying for a job that is somewhat different than your current job, it is up to you to draw a connection for the resume reviewer, so that they will understand how your skills will fit in their organization. The person who reviews your paperwork will not be a mind reader. If you are modest about the skills you can offer, or the results you have achieved, a resume reader may take what you write literally, and be left with a low opinion of your ability: you need to say exactly how good you are. On the other hand, of course, never stretch the truth or lie. (Source: www.ielts-mentor.com) Question 36: What topic does the passage mainly discuss? A. The way how to write the resume for job application. B. The mistakes people make when applying for a job. C. The common way to make impression in a job interview. D. The necessary skills for job application. Question 37: The word “executing” in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to ___. A. enumeratingB. determiningC. completing D. implementing Question38: The word “concrete” in paragraph 3 could be best replaced by ___. A. indeterminateB. specificC. substantial D. important Question39: What does the word “it” in paragraph 3 refer to? A. organization moneyB. informationC. productivity D. percentage Question 40: According to the passage, what information should candidates include in their resume? A. specific skills for previous jobs B. the past achievements C. previous positions D. future objective Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following is NOT true? A. The ability to negotiate effectively is as significant as technical skills. B. Candidates must study the job they are applying carefully before writing the CV. C. Applicants should not apply for a distinct job from what they are doing. D. The information interviewees present should be related to the job they are applying. Question 42. It can be inferred from the last paragraph that ___. A. you should write accurately about your ability for the vacant position. B. you should be modest about what you can do. 4
  5. C. a resume reader is good enough to understand what you imply about your ability in the CV. D. you are allowed to exaggerate the truth of your competence if possible. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 43: Every morning, my mother get up early to prepare breakfast for the whole family. Question 44: The mountain sheep is known for their incredible agility, timidity and ability to withstand severe cold. Question 45: Women in many parts of the world have had lower state than men, and the extent of the gap between genders varies across cultures and times. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 46: He last had his eyes tested ten months ago. A. He has had his eyes tested for ten monthsB. He tested his eyes for ten months C. He hasn’t had his eyes tested for ten months.D. He didn’t have any test on his eyes ten months ago. Question 47: “You’d better apologize for being late,” said my mother. A. My mother suggested apologizing for being late. B. My mother promised to apologize for being late. C. My mother advised me to apologize for being late.D. My mother warned me to apologize for being late. Question 48: Perhaps we will be late for school today. A. We may not get to the school on time today.B. We needn’t get to school on time today. C. We must get to school on time today.D. We should get to school on time today. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 49: He can’t get high score. The test is too hard. A. He wishes the test were easy and he could get high scores B. If the test is easy, he can get high score. C. As long as the test is easy, he will be able to get high score. D. If only the test had been easy and he could have got high score. Question 50: He retired. He then thought about having a holiday abroad. A. But for his thought about having a holiday abroad, he could have retired. B. Not until he thought about having a holiday abroad did he retire. C. Hardly had he thought about having a holiday abroad when he retired. D. Only after he retired did he think about having a holiday abroad. 5