Đề luyện thi kỳ thi tốt nghiệp THPT Tiếng Anh 12 Sách Mới - Năm học 2022-2023 - Mã đề 062 (Có đáp án)

Nội dung text: Đề luyện thi kỳ thi tốt nghiệp THPT Tiếng Anh 12 Sách Mới - Năm học 2022-2023 - Mã đề 062 (Có đáp án)

1. SỞ GD&ĐT . KÌ THI TỐT NGHIỆP TRUNG HỌC PHỔ THÔNG NĂM 2023 ĐỀ THI THAM KHẢO Bài thi: NGOẠI NGỮ; Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH 062 (Đề thi gồm 04 trang) Thời gian làm bài. 60 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề Họ và tên thí sinh: . SBD: Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. shut B. pull C. brush D. much Question 2: A. climb B. club C. bless D. boost Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. example B. occasion C. allowance D. company Question 4: A. option B. nature C. costume D. approach Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: She ___ a feeble effort to smile, then started crying again. A. took B. made C. gave D. did Question 6: So how long have you been married ___ Nicky? A. for B. to C. with D. of Question 7: Bob’s friends have had a positive influence on him and his ___ have improved. A. results B. outcomes C. consequences D. products Question 8: Many people are very concerned about the ___ of the rainforests. A. pollution B. destruction C. extinction D. exploitation Question 9: The house with a garden is ___ than the house without a garden. A. as beautiful B. more beautiful C. beautiful D. the most beautiful Question 10: The project ___ by researchers as soon as it is invested. A. has carried out B. carries out C. was carried out D. will be carried out Question 11: Mr. Richardson was a sympathetic listener, ___? A. was he B. did he C. didn’t he D. wasn’t he Question 12: The World Health Organization would like to stress that taking care of your mental health is as vital as ___ your physical health. A. looking after B. looking into C. looking for D. getting over Question 13: If you want to rent a 4-bedroom house for only two, you must pay through the ___ for it. A. mouth B. ear C. nose D. eye Question 14: My mother ___ music magazines in her room when there was a knock at the door. A. has read B. was reading C. read D. is reading Question 15: The main elements ___ for survival are food, fire, shelter and water. A. required B. requiring C. is required D. require Question 16: We will submit our proposal ___. A. after we will complete the last part B. after we completed the last part C. after we had completed the last part D. after we have completed the last part Question 17: Nam commanded me ___ the door A. to opening B. open C. opening D. to open Question 18: The city zoo is looking for some ___ that work at the weekend. A. voluntary B. voluntarily C. volunteers D. voluntarism Question 19: She stayed to wash ___ dishes after his birthday party. A. a B. 0 (no article) C. the D. an Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Peter and Louis are talking about the weather. - Peter: “This weather is perfect for a picnic.” - Louis: “___, especially when we are free and have just gone through a hard exam period.” A. We need to consider what to do B. That’s a good idea C. Yes. It’s very exciting D. I don’t know Question 21: Ellen and Don are arranging to go downtown for lunch.
2. - Ellen: “Why don’t we get on a bus to go downtown for lunch?” - Don: “___.” A. That sounds great B. Not at all C. It's kind of you to say so D. Wow! I didn't realize that Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The student service center will try their best to assist students in finding a suitable part-time job. A. allow B. support C. employ D. protect Question 23: Sarah is very outgoing; however, her brother is quite reserved. He rarely shows his feelings or thoughts to others. A. shy B. open C. calm D. gentle Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: When business gets into the groove, he will probably offer permanent jobs to the most valued employees. A. grows successfully B. goes into straight line C. makes improvement D. becomes worse Question 25: In order to boost agricultural productivity, many farmers have to change plant varieties and improve machines. A. raise B. reduce C. increase D. improve Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: It is impossible for all the students to submit their assignments after Tuesday. A. All the students may submit their assignments after Tuesday. B. All the students needn't submit their assignments after Tuesday. C. All the students can't submit their assignments after Tuesday. D. All the students must submit their assignments after Tuesday. Question 27: "How much did you pay for that laptop?" the colleague asked Anna. A. The colleague asked Anna how much she had paid for that laptop. B. The colleague asked Anna how much had she paid for that laptop. C. The colleague asked Anna how much I have paid for that laptop. D. The colleague asked Anna how much I paid for that laptop. Question 28: Nam last cleaned his car three weeks ago. A. Nam hasn’t cleaned his car for three weeks. B. Nam spent three weeks cleaning his car. C. Nam hadn’t cleaned his car for three weeks. D. Nam didn’t clean his car three weeks ago. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 29: During the sixth century, the inhabitants of Gujarat have developed a method of gaining access to clean water. A. During B. have developed C. gaining D. to Question 30: A comprehensive study revealed that even among biological relatives there are significant differences in temperance. A. comprehensive B. revealed C. biological D. temperance Question 31: The company should allow flexible working hours so that their employees can avoid traffic congestion. A. allow B. working C. their D. traffic Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: Kathy wants to join the singing contest. However, she doesn’t have a beautiful voice. A. Unless Mary has a more beautiful voice, she can join the singing contest. B. Mary wishes she became more beautiful to join the singing contest. C. If Kathy had a beautiful voice, she would join the singing contest. D. If only Kathy had had a more beautiful voice, she would have joined the singing contest. Question 33: ChatGPT Application was introduced a few weeks ago. People were all interested in trying it right after that.
3. A. Hardly had ChatGPT Application been introduced when people were all interested in trying it. B. Not until people were all interested in trying ChatGPT Application was it introduced a few weeks ago. C. Only after people had been all interested in trying ChatGPT Application was it introduced a few weeks ago. D. No sooner had people been all interested in trying ChatGPT Application than it was introduced a few weeks ago. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 34 to 38. The life span of an elephant that dies from natural causes is about sixty-five years. Of course, an elephant can perish from a number of “unnatural causes”; e.g., it can be killed by hunters, most probably for the valuable ivory in its tusks; it can die from diseases that spread throughout an elephant herd; or it can die from drought or from the lack of food (34) ___ almost certainly accompanies the inadequate supply of water. If, (35) ___, an elephant survives these disasters, it falls grey to old age in its mid-sixties. Around this age, the (36) ___ of death is attributed to the loss of the final set of molars. When this last set of teeth is gone, the elephant dies from malnutrition because it is unable to obtain adequate (37) ___. In old age, elephants tend to search out a final home where there is shade for comfort from the sun and soft vegetation for cushioning; the bones of (38) ___ old elephants have been found in such places. (Adapted from Longman Complete course for the TOEFL Test- Deborah Phillip) Question 34: A. who B. whose C. what D. that Question 35: A. therefore B. in addition C. however D. otherwise Question 36: A. reason B. cause C. factor D. effect Question 37: A. drink B. refreshment C. meal D. nourishment Question 38: A. much B. many C. each D. every Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. Big Bend National Park in the southwest of Texas is one of the most majestic desert areas in the United States. It is part of the Chihuahua, which is one of the largest deserts in North America and stretches over both America and Mexico. Big Bend Park is home to mountains, rivers, basins, valleys, as well as many plants and animals. It is not as popular a national park as some others. This may be because it takes an extremely long time to get there. Big Bend National Park is hundreds of miles from the nearest legitimate town or airport. When people go there, they need to make sure that their cars have plenty of gas. There is a large risk of running out. When visitors get to the park, they are usually happy that they drove all the way. The park is 1,252 square miles of desert beauty. There are beautiful cactus blooms as well as glorious sunsets. The hiking trails are magnificent. Visitors can stay in a lodge that is run by the park or camp with their own equipment. However, visitors should be careful. Even though the park is incredibly hot during the day, the lack of moisture in the air makes the heat dissipate at night. The nights at Big Bend are surprisingly cold so it’s important to bring a warm sleeping bag. (Adapted from Master TOEFL Junior Advanced- Reading Comprehension) Question 39: Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage? A. A Place of Desert Flowers B. A Popular Tourist Attraction C. A National Park Worth Visiting D. A Desert in America Question 40: Which can be a reason why Big Bend Park isn’t as popular as some others? A. It is too cold for most visitors. B. Most cars aren’t strong enough to get there. C. A lot of people don’t want to visit Texas. D. It is very far away from a town or an airport. Question 41: The word “they” in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. cars B. people C. visitors D. miles Question 42: The word “lodge” is closest in meaning to ___. A. tent B. cottage C. hotel D. restaurant Question 43: Which of the following is NOT true about Big Bend? A. Lodge is the only accommodation there. B. Sights in the Big Bend are worth traveling a long distance.
4. C. Visitors can bring their own camping equipment to sleep outside. D. People cannot sleep well without a warm sleeping bag. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. UN warns over impact of rapidly ageing populations. The world needs to do more to prepare for the impact of a rapidly ageing population, the UN has warned - particularly in developing countries. Within 10 years the number of people aged over 60 will pass one billion, a report by the UN Population Fund said. The demographic shift will present huge challenges to countries' welfare, pension and healthcare systems. The UN agency also said more had to be done to tackle “abuse, neglect and violence against older persons”. The number of older people worldwide is growing faster than any other age group. The report, Ageing in the 21st Century: A Celebration and a Challenge, estimates that one in nine people around the world are older than 60. The elderly population is expected to swell by 200 million in the next decade to surpass one billion, and reach two billion by 2050. This rising proportion of older people is a consequence of success - improved nutrition, sanitation, healthcare, education and economic well-being are contributing factors, the report says. But the UN and a charity that also contributed to the report, HelpAge International, say the ageing population is being widely mismanaged. "In many developing countries with large populations of young people, the challenge is that governments have not put policies and practices in place to support their current older populations or made enough preparations for 2050," the agencies said in a joint statement. The report warns that the skills and experience of older people are being wasted, with many under-employed and vulnerable to discrimination. HelpAge said more countries needed to introduce pension schemes to ensure economic independence and reduce poverty in old age. It stressed that it was not enough to simply pass legislation - the new schemes needed to be funded properly. (Adapted from Question 44: Which of the following could be the main topic of the passage? A. The causes of the rise in elderly people. B. The quick decrease of the elderly people. C. The benefits brought by the ageing population. D. The difficulties caused by the ageing population. Question 45: The word impact in paragraph 1 could be best replaced by ___. A. damage B. benefit C. influence D. praise Question 46: The word surpass in paragraph 2 closest in meaning to ___. A. exceed B. decrease C. respect D. comprise Question 47: The word It in paragraph 3 refers to ___. A. HelpAge B. independence C. poverty D. old age Question 48: According to paragraph 4, to ensure economic independence and reduce poverty in old age, countries need to ___. A. make pension plans B. enact laws for old people C. raise funds for public activities D. support older populations Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true about older people? A. Of all the age groups, the elderly are growing the fastest. B. Countries' welfare, pension and healthcare systems will be pressurized by older people. C. By 2050, the number of older people may increase to 2 billion. D. The ageing population is under control. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Rapidly ageing populations bring a lot of benefits to the society. B. Countries are preparing so many new policies for the future. C. Ageing populations will be a burden to many countries. D. Ageing populations are the consequence of wars. ___HẾT___