Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 cấp huyện - Môn: Tiếng Anh

Nội dung text: Đề thi học sinh giỏi lớp 9 cấp huyện - Môn: Tiếng Anh

1. UBND ĐỀ THI HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO Năm học: . MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 25 tháng 09 năm 2018 Thời gian: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề) Đề thi này gồm có 04 trang Họ tên thí sinh: Phòng thi số: Số báo danh: PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2 pts) 1. A. curriculum B. particular C. flexible D. economics 2. A. naked B. checked C. booked D. ticked 3. A. result B. destroy C. simple D. construct Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts) 1. A. primary B. religion C. tropical D. friendliness 2. A. magazine B. understand C. embroider D. entertain PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 pts) Question I: Choose the most suitable word or phrase to complete each sentence. (10 pts) 1. “ Would you like me to get you a taxi ?” “ ” A. That would be delightful. Thanks B. Well, let’s see C. Yes, please, if it’s no bother. D. Yes, I see. 2 home schooling is apparently very successful, many people still believe in the benifits of traditional schooling. A. Despite that B. Because C. Inspite of D. Even though 3. Put all the toys away someone slips and falls on them A. provided that B. unless C. in case D. as long as 4. There’s almost no place that isn’t affected by pollution. A. on earth B. on the world C. on the earth D. in the earth 5. Marie Curie was the first woman two Nobel prizes. A. who awarded B. to be awarded C. awarding D. that was awarding 6. “Would you mind putting the parcel in the post for me?” “ ” A. Don’t mention it B. Yes, I would. I’ll do it now. C. Not at all. I’ll do it today D. Yes, of course 7. “ I don’t think we should exercise late at night.” “ ” A. Neither do I B. I think so, too C. So do I D. I don’t, neither. 8. If you agree, I would like to a suggestion. A. show B. set up C. reach D. make 9. Never till tomorrow what you can do today. A. put out B. put off C. put away D. put down 10. It’s hard to well with him. He’s got such a difficult character. A. get over B. get on C. get into D. get in 11. You look exhausted. a long way? A. Did you run C. Have you run B. Have you been running D. Had you been running 12. “Would you be willing to travel as part of your job?” “ ” A. That would be great B. I don’t mind it C. I’d rather not D. A, B or C 13. There are only two seats left, and I don’t want to seat near the door. I’ll take. . A. another one B.each other one C. other one D. the other one 1
2. 14. . . two and one half hours to climb to the top of the Empire State Building. A. Typically taking it B. Typically takes it C. It typically takes D. To take it typically 15. Alfalfa is . for livestock. A. a primarily grown crop C. a grown crop primarily B. grown primarily a crop D. a crop grown primarily 16. I really like Venice because it is. unique city with a lot of manmade rivers. A. the B. an C. a D. no article 17. He was . George in the examination list. A. on B. above C. over D. up 18. . the newspapers have revealed so far can justify the action taken by the Army. A. Nothing of that B. Nothing that C. Nothing as D. Nothing what 19. When you go out, will you get me of Newsweek? A. a copy B. an edition C. a paper D. a publication 20. They said they could order it for me because they didn’t have my size in A. shop B. hold C. store D. stock Question II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 pts) 1. I didn’t go out last night because I was and I didn’t want to see anyone. DEPRESS 2. You’re always Isn’t there anything that makes you happy? MISERY 3. We can only catch criminals if we have the full of the general public. COOPERATE 4. She gave me a very look when she saw that I wasn’t wearing the correct. APPROVE 5. The bloodstain on her dress was very NOTICE 6. You shouldn’t interrupt someone in . SENTENCE 7. Advertisements acount for three fourths of the of the newspaper. COME 8. If your work is .you won’t get a raise. SATISFY 9. The athletes take part in the Olympic Games in the true spirit of . SPORT 10. I am afraid you have been .She no longer works for us. INFORM Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) Dear Jane, I’m sorry I haven’t written to you for so long, but I (BE) (1) very busy lately. All last month I (HAVE) (2) exams, and I haven’t done anything else but study for ages. Anyway, I (STOP) (3) studying now, and I (WAIT) (4) for my exam results. As you can see from this letter, I (CHANGE) (5) my address and (LIVE) (6) in Croydon now. I decided that I wanted a change from central London because it has become so expensive. A friend of mine (TELL) (7) me about this flat, and I moved here about two months ago. When you (COME) (8) to London this Summer, please visit me. I (STAY) (9) here until the middle of August. Then I (GO) (10) on holiday to Sctoland. Please write to me soon, Margaret. PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts) Question I: Fill in the blanks with one suitable word. The first letter of the word has been provided (10pts) A story is a work of imagination. The people (1) write stories write them in order to give pleasure to (2) who read stories. Story-readers are, generally (3) , women of all ages and younger men. Readers love the start of a story, where there are new and sometimes strange people to be (4) for the first time. They enjoy the story itself, the gentleness and the violence, the loves and the (5) , with which a good writer interests his (6) . . They enjoy the end of the story, whether it is happy or (7) . The reader’s chief purpose in all this is to (8) from ordinary life for a short (9) . Older men, as a rule, find their ordinary lives (10) pleasant to run away from. 2
3. Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) Earth is the only place we know of in the universe that can support human life. (1) human activities are making the planet less fit to live on. As the western world (2) on consuming two- thirds of the world’s resources while half of the world’s population do so (3) to stay alive, we are rapidly destroying the (4) resource we have by which all people can survive and prosper. Everywhere fertile soil is (5) built on or washed into the sea. Renewable resources are exploited so much that they will never be able to recover (6) . We discharge pollutants into the atmosphere without any thought of the consequences. As a result, the planet’s ability to support people is being (7) at the very time when rising human numbers and consumption are (8) increasingly heavy demands on it. The Earth’s natural resources are there for us to use. We need food, water, air, energy, medicines, warmth, shelter and minerals to (9) us fed, comfortable, healthy and active. If we are sensible in how we use the resources, they will (10) indefinitely. But if we use them wastefully and excessively, they will soon run out and everyone will suffer. 1. A. Yet B. Still C. Although D. Despite 2. A. continues B. repeats C. carries D. follows 3. A. already B. just C. for D. entirely 4. A. only B. individual C. lone D. alone 5. A. sooner B. either C. neither D. rather 6. A. quite B. greatly C. utterly D. completely 7. A. stopped B. narrowed C. reduced D. cut 8. A. making B. having C. taking D. doing 9. A. hold B. maintain C. keep D. stay 10. A. last B. stand C. go D. remain Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below. (5 pts) Before the mid-nineteenth century, people in the United States ate most foods only in season. Drying, smoking, and salting could preserve meat for a short time, but the availability of fresh meat, like that of fresh milk, was very limited; there was no way to prevent spoilage. But in 1810 a French inventor named Nicolas Appert developed the cooking-and-sealing process of canning. And in the 1850's an American named Gail Borden developed a means of condensing and preserving milk. Canned goods and condensed milk became more common during the 1860's, but supplies remained low because cans had to be made by hand. By 1880, however, inventors had fashioned stamping and soldering machines that mass-produced cans from tinplate. Suddenly all kinds of food could be preserved and bought at all times of the year. Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary their daily diets. Growing urban populations created demand that encouraged fruit and vegetable farmers to raise more produce. Railroad refrigerator cars enabled growers and meat packers to ship perishables great distances and to preserve them for longer periods. Thus, by the 1890's, northern city dwellers could enjoy southern and western strawberries, grapes, and tomatoes, previously available for a month at most, for up to six months of the year. In addition, increased use of iceboxes enabled families to store perishables. An easy means of producing ice commercially had been invented in the 1870's, and by 1900 the nation had more than two thousand commercial ice plants, most of which made home deliveries. The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized refrigerator replaced it in the 1920's and 1930's. Almost everyone now had a more diversified diet. Some people continued to eat mainly foods that were heavy in starches or carbohydrates, and not everyone could afford meat. Nevertheless, many families could take advantage of previously unavailable fruits, vegetables, and dairy products to achieve more varied fare. 3
4. 1. What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Causes of food spoilage B. Inventions that led to changes in the American diet C. Commercial production of ice D. Population movements in the nineteenth century 2. The phrase "in season" in paragraph 1 refers to A. a kind of weather B. a particular time of year C. an official schedule D. a method of flavoring food 3. During the 1860's, canned food products were A. unavailable in rural areas B. shipped in refrigerator cars C. available in limited quantities D. a staple part of the American diet 4. The word "them" in paragraph 2 refers to A. refrigerator cars B. perishables C. growers D. distances 5. Which of the following types of food preservation was NOT mentioned in the passage? A. Drying B. Canning C. Cold storage D. Chemical additives PART D: WRITING (30 pts) Question I: Complete the second sentence with the same meaning as the first one. (10 pts) 1. People always laugh at his face, and he dislikes it. He hates . 2. I am sorry I forgot to phone grandma. I apologise . 3. Given fair warning, I could have avoided that date. If you had told me 4. All the children will receive a prize, whatever their score in the competition. No matter what their . 5. Except for the inspector, everyone was in uniform. The inspector was the . 6. Bill found a job very quickly. It didn’t . 7. You will have to spend at least $500 to get that sort of camera. You won’t get . 8. They cancelled the flight because of the heavy rain. So heavily 9. Working for this travel agency will not be possible without a good command of English. Unless you have 10. How well I sleep depends on how late I go to bed. The later Question II: Using the word given and other words, complete the second sentences so that it has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the word given (10 pts) 1. I supposed you were very tired after your long walk. (MUST)  . 2. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)  . 3. Flooding in this region was the result of the heavy rain. (RESULTED)  . 4. He was suspended for two matches for swearing at the referee. (EARNED)  . 5. Anna has improved a lot this term. (PROGRESS)  . 6. Martin had difficulty in accepting the loss of his money. (HARD)  . 4
5. 7. Although her leg hurt, Jill finished the race. (PAIN)  . 8. Everyone but Jane failed to produce the correct answer. (SUCCEEDED)  . 9. I don’t really like her, even though I admire her achievement. (MUCH)  . 10. Quite by chance, Alice met Peter at the station. (RAN)  . Question III: Write a paragraph of 120-150 words to support the argument that secondary school students shouldn’t spend too much time playing computer games. (10 points) (THE END) 5
6. UBND ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 CẤP HUYỆN Năm học: MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 25 tháng 9 năm 2018 A- ĐÁP ÁN B- PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts) Question I: Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently from the rest in the same line. (2 pts) 1. C 2. A 3. A Question II: Find the word with the stress pattern different from that of the other three words in each question. (3 pts) 1. B 2. C PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 pts) Question I. 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. D Question II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 points) 1. depressed 2. miserable 3. cooperation 4. disapproving 5. noticeable 6. mid – sentence 7. incomes 8. unsatisfactory 9. sportsmanship 10. misinformed Question III: Put each verb in brackets into an appropriate form. (10 pts) 1. have been 2. had 3. have stopped 4. am waiting 5. have changed 6. live 7. told 8. come 9. am staying/ am going to stay 10. am going PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts) Question I: Fill in the blanks with one suitable word. The first letter of the word has been provided (10pts) 1. who/that 2. those/people 3. speaking 4. met 5. hates 6. readers 7. sad/ unhappy 8. escape 9. time 10. too Question II: Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word or phrase for each space. (10 pts) 1. A 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B 6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. A Question III: Read the passage and choose the best answers to questions below.(5 pts) 1. C 2. B 3. C 4. B 5. D PART D: WRITING (30 pts) Question I: Complete the second sentence with the same meaning as the first one. (10 pts) 1. He hates being laughed at his face/ hates people laughing at his face. 2. I apologise for not phoning grandma. 3. If you had told me in advance, I could have avoided that date. 4. No matter what their score in the competition is, all the children will receive a prize. 5. The inspector was the only person (there) not in uniform/ that did not wear uniform. 6. It didn’t take Bill long to find a job. 7. You won’t get that sort of camera for less than $500. 6
7. 8. So heavily did it rain that they cancelled the flight. 9. Unless you have a good command of English, you can't/ won't be able to work for this company. 10. The later I go to bed, the better I sleep. Question II: Using the word given and other words, complete the second sentences so that it has the same meaning as the first. Do not change the word given (10 pts) 1. You must have been very tired after your long walk. 2. Some interesting new information has come to light/ has been brought to light. 3. The heavy rain resulted in flooding in this region. 4. Swearing at the referee earned him a two - match suspension. (him) a suspension for two matches. 5. Anna has made a lot of progress this term. 6. It was hard for Martin to accept the loss of his money. / Martin found it hard to accept the loss of his money 7. In spite of a pain in her leg, Jill finished the race 8. No one but Jane succeeded in producing the correct answer. 9. Much as I admire her achievement, I don’t really like her. 10. Alice ran into Philip at the station Question III. Write a paragraph of 100-120 words to support the argument that secondary school students shouldn’t spend too much time playing computer games. (10 points) - Organization: (Bố cục bài luận rõ ràng, đầy đủ 3 phần: mở bài, thân bài, kết luận) (2,0 ps) - Discourse: (Thể hiện khả năng viết mạch lạc, chặt chẽ; nối kết câu, chuyển mạch) (2,0 ps) - Sentence structure (morphology, vocabulary, spelling): Cấu trúc câu, ngữ pháp, từ vựng; câu linh hoạt (đơn, phức ) (2,0 ps) - Ideas: (Ý hay, phong phú, nội dung liên quan chặt chẽ với chủ đề của đề thi) (2,0 ps) - Length: (Đảm bảo đủ số lượng từ qui định: không quá dài hoặc quá ngắn, viết đúng chính tả, chấm câu phù hợp. (2,0 ps) HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Tổng số points Tổng điểm toàn bài = 5 Điểm toàn bài được làm tròn đến 0,25 7
8. Question III: Use the given suggestions to complete sentences correctly you can add or change the the form of the words. (5 pts) 1. Nowadays/ viewers/ watch/ range/ local/ international program /different channel. 2. When/ Robert/ child/ fond/ chocolate. 3. My friend/ live/ Ho Chi Minh city/ not accustomed/ cold weather/ the North. 4. The residents/ area/ required/ my factory/ fit/ new filters/ to / chimneys/ so that/ dirt/ smoke/ not/pollute/air. 5. She/another attempt/ climb /this mountain/ next year. 1. Nowadays, viewers can watch a wide range of local and international programs on different channels. 2. When Robert was a child, he was fond of chocolate. 3. My friend, who lives/living in Ho Chi Minh city, is not accustomed to (the) cold weather in the North. 4. The residents in the area required that my factory (should) fit new filters to its chimneys so that dirt and smoke would not pollute the air. 5. She is going to make/ is making/ will make another attempt to climb/at climbing this mountain next year. 8
9. Question IV: (15 pts) Living in high buildings in the city has both good and bad points. Write about this. (140 - 160 words) (Thí sinh không được viết tên mình và địa chỉ vào bài thi) THE END UBND HUYÊN HÀ TRUNG ĐÁP ÁN VÀ HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO ĐỀ GIAO LƯU HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 8 CẤP HUYỆN Năm học: 2017 - 2018 MÔN: TIẾNG ANH Ngày thi: 24 tháng 04 năm 2018 C- ĐÁP ÁN PART A: PHONETICS (5 pts - mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) Question I + Question II. 1.A 2.D 3. C 4. B 5. A PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (40 pts - mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) Question I. 1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. B 6. C 7. A 8. D 9. B 10. B 11. B 12. B 13. A 14. C 15. D 16. C 17. B 18. B 19. A 20. D Question II. Fill in each blank with the correct form of the word in capital letters. (10 points) 1. depressed 2. miserable 3. cooperation 4. disapproving 5. noticeable 6. mid – sentence 7. incomes 8. unsatisfactory 9. sportsmanship 10. misinformed Question III. 31. will be given 37. had known 32. had gone 38. driving 33. boils 39. surrounded 34. Having written 40. will walk 35-36. came – was rolling 9
10. PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts - mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) Question I. 1. trees 2. without 3. nothing/ none 4. time 5. parents 6. drawings 7. same 8. round 9. important/ interesting 10. first Question II. 11. A. wearing 16. A. London school 12. C. alike 17. C. in 13. D. how poor they were 18. D. die than 14. D. given up 19. B. should 15. B. a uniform of their own 20. C. much cheaper Question III: 1.C 2.B 3.D 4.A 5.B PART D: WRITING (30 pts) Question I (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 1. Inspite of heavy snow, U23 Vietnamese football Team played well in China. 2. Is English studied in Singapore at school as a compulsory second language? 3. “I can’t finish this report for you next week” Nga said. 4. Because Ha’s brother was lazy, he failed the entrance exam last year. 5. Unless you have a good command of English, you won’t be possible to work for Samsung Group. Question II. (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 6. It took me over eight months to revise for this English exam. 7. You aren’t allowed to leave the room without Mr Pike’s permission. 8. I have never visited Xuan Huong Lake in Da Lat city before. 9. If farmers didn’t use too many pesticides and herbicides, the soil wouldn’t be poisoned. Or If farmers used fewer pesticides and herbicides, the soil wouldn’t be poisoned. 10. The heavy fog prevented us from driving fast on the high way yesterday. Question II. (5 điểm- Mỗi câu đúng 1 điểm) 11. Mr Kien was absent from the work yesterday because he had a bad flu. 12. What would you do if you saw ghost when you go alone at night? 13. Our monitor, Ha always goes to class on time. He is a good example in studying for class. 14. When having meals with a British family, you should never chew with your mouth open. 15. The harder you try in/with your studying at school, the better result you achieve. Question IV. (15 pts) Marking criteria: + Task completion (4 pts) + Grammatical accuracy and spelling (3 pts): + Coherence and cohesion (tính mạch lạc và sự liên kết câu, đoạn) – (3 pts): Tùy mức độ mạch lạc, liên kết câu, liên kết đoạn của bài viết, giám khảo có thể chấm 1-3 điểm. B - HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM Bài thi chấm theo thang điểm: 20 Điểm bài thi làm tròn đến 0,2 Tổng số điểm thí sinh làm đúng Điểm bài thi = 5 10