Đề thi cuối học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 I learn Smart World - Năm học 2022-2023

Nội dung text: Đề thi cuối học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 I learn Smart World - Năm học 2022-2023

1. FIRST SEMESTER FINAL TEST TEST 1 Note: Each correct answer earns 0.2 points. I. PRONUNCIATION (0.8 points) A. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. 1. A. marathon B. natural C. classical D. tradition 2. A. agrees B. raises C. believes D. provides B. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions. 3. A. concert B. donate C. collect D. attend 4. A. cinema B. performance C. charity D. organise II. USE OF ENGLISH (3.8 points) A. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. 5. Sometimes, it’s difficult to ___ with your colleagues. A. give out B. fit in C. give away D. fit out 6. The world ___ a better place if everyone ___ a job. A. was/ would have B. will be/ has C. is/ has D. would be/ had 7. When I ___ home, my mum ___ the kitchen floor. A. got/ was mopping B. got/ mopped C. was getting/ was mopping D. was getting/ has mopped 8. Joe is from the city, so he has ___ experience of working on a farm. A. much B. a few C. little D. many 9. Ms. Jennifer ___ in the catering industry for several years. A. has worked B. worked C. is working D. was working 10. Look at that child! He ___ the road all alone. Someone needs to stop him! A. will cross B. was crossing C. crossed D. is going to cross 11. Sophia is such a(n) ___ person. She always plans very carefully and she knows exactly what she’s doing. A. determined B. organized C. healthy D. caring 12. We ___ to the cinema three times this month. Let’s do something else. A. have gone B. went C. have been D. were 13. Mark was walking round a(n) ___ when he saw Lucy. She was looking at a painting by Van Gogh. A. art exhibition B. theatre C. museum D. music festival 14. My sister is a mechanic. She’s responsible ___ checking the cars for problems. A. to B. with C. on D. for
2. B. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 15. Save the Children organisation aims to promote children’s rights and provides relief for children in developing countries. A. help B. develop C. grow D. protect 16. Ms. Johnson is such a caring teacher. She cares for her students’ happiness, well-being and life beyond the classroom. A. funny B. careful C. ambitious D. helpful C. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word or phrase that is OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined part in each of the following questions. 17. I was really disappointed at the play last night. The actors forgot their lines and the story was boring. A. satisfied B. angry C. scared D. proud 18. Foodbank is the largest hunger relief charity in Australia. They collect all kinds of food from farmers, manufacturers and retailers, then donate them to homeless shelters and soup kitchens. A. raise B. provide C. give out D. receive D. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to show the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 19. Teachers can play an important role on helping students make a decision on their career. A B C D 20. When I walked onto the stage, I was seeing the school hall full of students, parents and teachers. A B C D E. Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best completes each of the following exchanges. 21. Student A: “What were you doing at 10 p.m. last night?” Student B: “___” A. I’m studying for an exam. B. Nothing. I was asleep. C. I talked to my dad. D. I’ve done my homework. 22. Student A: “Let’s have a bake sale to raise money for children in the mountainous area.” Student B: “___” A. I love baking. B. I’d prefer to. C. That’s a good idea. D. I can come to the bake sale. 23. Student A: “I won the audition last night.” Student B: “___” A. Really? That was amazing! B. Oh, dear! What was a shock! C. Ekk! That was lucky! D. Aww! How cute you were! III. WORD FORMATION (0.4 points)
3. Write the correct forms of the words in brackets. 24. Good __qualifications___ and previous work experience are essential for this job. (QUALIFY) 25. Designers are usually ___inventive___. They need lots of imagination to think of new ideas. (INVENT) IV. READING (3.0 points) A. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30. Traditionally, Christmas is the time of giving and sharing. Besides looking for perfect gifts for friends and family members, many people also think about those who are (26) ___ fortunate. At this time of the year, most charities encourage us to donate some money so that they can help the homeless or the elderly. One of the most interesting fundraising campaigns in the UK is the Christmas Jumper Day, which is organised by the charity Save the Children. The event (27) ___ annually on the second Friday of December. The idea is simple: people wear a special Christmas-themed jumper on this day and donate at least £2 to Save the Children. The donations are used to help children around the world who are currently living in poverty. The charity helps by (28) ___ nutritious food, shelters and education for the children in need, aiming to improve their quality of life. They also ensure that children have (29) ___ to medical treatment, including necessary vaccinations. Since its launch in 2012, over 17 million people have taken part in Christmas Jumper Day, raising £16 million to help children. Why do people support this campaign? (30) ___, they do so because it’s a fun and easy way of doing a good deed! 26. A. more B. much C. less D. little 27. A. takes place B. takes part C. works D. sets up 28. A. giving B. improving C. helping D. providing 29. A. right B. access C. ways D. foundation 30. A. About my view B. I think C. To my mind D. My opinion B. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 31 to 35. When firefighters turn up to put out a fire, traditionally people expect them to be men. However, underneath the protective clothing, helmet and visor, there are more and more women. One such woman is Krystyna Krakowski. She became a firefighter in Florida in 2000, when there were very few women to work beside or guide her in the service. She is now not only successful but also recruiting more females into the profession. In September 2020, Ms.
4. Krakowski was one of the five women at Palm Beach Gardens Fire Rescue who made department history by working an entire shift with no male colleagues. “We are capable of anything. Don’t let anything stop you,” Ms. Krakowski said. Women in the United States have a long history of fighting fires. During World War II, women fought fires while men fought overseas. At that time, some fire departments were staffed entirely by women. Nowadays, female firefighters account for 4% of professional firefighters nationwide. However, their numbers and influence in the ranks are on the rise. Being a firefighter is a challenging but rewarding job. Firefighters need to wear heavy equipment, use various tools and perform rescue operation. Therefore, they have to be quick thinkers, strong and courageous. They work 24-hour shifts and then get 48 hours off before they repeat the same routine. During their shifts, they respond to calls involving incidents like structure fires, car accidents, medical emergencies and traumatic injuries. They also provide fire safety education and other measures that can help communities prevent accidents or avoid injuries. 31. When Ms. Krakowski became a firefighter, ___. A. there were few female colleagues. B. she didn’t have anyone beside her. C. nobody guided her. D. she recruited a lot of female firefighters. 32. What was the special event in Palm Beach Gardens Fire Rescue department in 2020? A. Ms. Krakowski joined the department. B. There were no male firefighters in the department. C. There were five women working in the department. D. There was an all-female fire rescue crew for the first time. 33. According to the passage, which of the following statement is TRUE? A. Nowadays, there are more female firefighters than during World War II. B. 4% of professional firefighters in Florida are women. C. During World War II, women served as firefighters to replace male firefighters who joined the military. D. Firefighters work on shifts that can last up to 48 hours. 34. All of the following are requirements to become a firefighter EXCEPT ___. A. Have a good physical condition B. Be brave C. Be able to make decisions fast D. Be able to avoid injuries effectively 35. One of the objectives of the fire service is ___ A. to encourage people to join the profession. B. to stop fires from happening. C. to show citizens how to perform operations.D. to answer phone calls about traffic. C. Read the following passage. For each of the questions from 36 to 40, write T if the statement is TRUE, F if the statement is FALSE and NI if there is NO INFORMATION on it.
5. The Eurovision Song Contest is an annual event where singers from different European countries compete to win the title of best song in Europe. It’s one of the most watched events in the world, with roughly 200 million viewers. Each year, it takes place in the country that won the previous year. In 2022, it was Italy’s turn as host country. When it started in 1956, there were just seven participants. Today, over 40 countries took part in the competition, with non-European participants including Israel and Australia. Each participating country sends a singer or a group to perform one original song at the semi-final. From these performances, 20 are chosen for the Grand Final. The main reason why Eurovision is such a big deal is that its performances are incredible. There is a variety of performances: pop, rock, folk and even opera. The productions are amazing, full of special effects and hilarious lyrics. It’s really fun to watch. After the performances at the Grand Final, each country votes for the best song. TV viewers can vote using their mobile phones, but each country also has an official jury who decides 50 per cent of the votes. In the end, the song with the most votes wins. Some famous singers owe their success to Eurovision. The Swedish group ABBA, for example, won the Eurovision in 1974 with its performance of Waterloo, and then became huge stars. In 1988, Céline Dion won for Switzerland before finding world fame with songs like My Heart Will Go On from the film Titanic. Overall, Eurovision is one of the most delightful music competitions in the world, and people should absolutely watch it. 36. Italy was the winner of the Eurovision 2021. True 37. Australia is the only non-European country that participates Eurovision. False 38. Special effects are used in every amazing performance. NI 39. A group of experts decides half of the votes in each country. True 40. Céline Dion won the Eurovision with the song My Heart Will Go On. False V. WRITING (1 point) Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning. Use the given word(s) if any. 41. I asked Kate to look after my cat when I was away. (TAKE) → I asked Kate to take care of my cat when I was away. 42. Alice should work hard; otherwise, she won’t get the promotion. → Unless Alice works hard, she won’t get the promotion. 43. It started to rain in the middle of their picnic. → While they were having a/ their picnic, it started to rain. 44. I’ve never run a marathon before. → This is the first time I have run a marathon. 45. Gemma is really busy at the moment, so she can’t help her sister do the laundry. → If Gemma wasn’t/ weren’t busy at the moment, she could/ would help her sister do the laundry. VI. LISTENING (1 point)
6. Listen to Sophie and Andy talking about their voluntary work. For questions from 46 to 50, answer the questions by writing A (for Andy) and S (for Sophie). Who 46. helps cooking meals for homeless people in the local area? Sophie___ 47. teaches children and helps doing some household chores? Andy___ 48. volunteers a few hours a week? Sophie___ 49. does voluntary work every weekend? Andy___ 50. wants to make a difference in the lives of others? Andy___ EXTRA QUESTIONS (1 point) VII. SENTENCE TRANSFORMATION Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. 51. Mr. Thomas started working as a volunteer at the soup kitchen 5 years ago. A. Mr. Thomas was working as a volunteer at the soup kitchen during the last 5 years. B. It’s 5 years since Mr. Thomas had worked at the soup kitchen. C. The last time Mr. Thomas volunteered at the soup kitchen was 5 years ago. D. Mr. Thomas has volunteered at the soup kitchen for 5 years. 52. The last time we organised a book fair was two years ago. A. There was a book fair organised at my school two years ago. B. We haven’t organised a book fair for two years. C. It has been two years since we went to a book fair. D. Two years has passed since we went to a book fair. 53. Living abroad enables you to learn about a new culture. A. If you lived abroad, you would learn about a new culture. B. Unless you live abroad, you will be able to learn about a new culture. C. If you live abroad, you will be able to learn a new culture. D. If you live abroad, you could learn about a new culture. SENTENCE COMPLETION Mark the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following questions. 54. ___ coming to the book fair with me? A. Would you like B. Why don’t you C. Do you fancy D. Do you want 55. I feel exhausted ___. A. because I’ve played tennis all the afternoon B. so I’ve played tennis all the afternoon
7. C. when I was playing tennis all the afternoon D. then I played tennis all the afternoon